Circular : No. 404 [F.
No. 178/50/82-IT (A-I)], dated 15-1-1985.
491. Special Frontier Force Group Insurance Scheme - Allowability of deduction of contributions made thereto
under clause (a)(i) of sub-section (2)
1. The Cabinet Secretariat have introduced with
effect from January 1, 1980 an insurance Scheme called the "Special
Frontier Force Group Insurance Scheme" for the welfare of employees. The
objective of the Scheme is to provide, at a low cost and on a wholly contributory and self-financing basis, the benefits
of an insurance cover for the families of the employees in the event of their
death while in service and a lump sum payment to the employees on their
retirement, discharge, etc., from service.
2. A question has been raised whether the contributions made by the
officers and staff towards the Special Frontier Force Group Insurance Scheme
would entitle the contributors to relief under section 80C(2)(a)(i)
of the Income-tax Act. It has been decided that the amount contributed by
the employees of this organisation to the Special
Frontier Force Group Insurance Scheme will be treated as an insurance premium
and will qualify for relief subject to the condition imposed in section
80C(4).
Circular : No. 405 [F. No. 178/1/84-IT(A-I)]
501. Subscriptions to National Savings Certificates
(VI Issue/VII Issue) - Clarifications on certain issues regarding their
eligibility for deduction under the section
1. Under section 80C(2)(h), an individual or Hindu
undivided family or an association of persons or a body of individuals
consisting only of husband and wife governed by the system of community of
property in force in the Union territories of Dadra
and Nagar Haveli and Goa, Daman and Diu is entitled to
a deduction in respect of any sums paid in a previous year out of his or its
income chargeable to tax, as subscription to any such security of the Central
Government as may be specified in the Official Gazette. National Savings Certificates (NSCs)
VI and VII Issues have been specified as securities for the purposes of section
80C(2)(h) and the notification has come into
force from April 2, 1983.
2. The following clarifications are issued in this connection :
(1) Whether income-tax exemption
under section 8OC can be claimed by first named person in case of joint holding
of NSCs VI Issue/VII Issue? The deduction under section 80C
can be claimed by the person who has contributed the monies out of his income
chargeable to tax. It can be claimed by the first named
person in a joint holding if the first named person has so contributed
the amount.
(2) Whether rebate of income-tax under section 80C
will be available where (a) NSCs VI Issue/VII
Issue are purchased in the name of spouse and minor children, and (b) jointly
by husband and wife ? - The answer to question (1) will apply also here. The
deduction under section 80C is to be given to the
person who has purchased the NSCs out of his income
chargeable to tax.
(3) Whether the interest accruing to the NSCs would be included in the hands of individual or in the
case of person(s) in whose name(s) the subscription has been
made? - The interest accruing on the subscription to the NSCs will be included in the hands of the person who has
subscribed from his income chargeable to tax.
(4) Since the interest on 6-Year NSC
VI Issue is deemed to have been re-invested whether the holder of the NSC-VI
Issue is entitled to claim benefit of section 80C on this re-invested interest
[Rules 19 and 28 of NSC-VI Issue Rules, 1981]?- The amount of interest
re-invested will satisfy the test of having been paid out of income chargeable
to tax to get the NSC and so will be entitled to deduction under section 80C.
(5) Whether a karta of a HUF
can buy NSCs in the name of any member of the HUF ? - Where subscription to the NSCs
in the name of any member of the HUF, is shown by the family to have been made
out of its income chargeable to tax and the beneficial ownership in such
certificates vests in the family, the family would be entitled to a deduction
under section 80C with reference to such contribution.
(6) Whether the interest accrued on the subscription
would be included in the hands of the individual or in the hands of the person
in whose name the subscription has been made ? -
The interest accrued would be included in the hands of the persons who
purchased the NSC out of their income chargeable to tax.
Circular : No. 405 [F. No. 178/1/84-IT(A-I)], dated 15-1-1985 as corrected by Circular : No. 418 [F. No. 178/1/84-IT(A-I)], dated 2-5-1985.
Circular
: No. 406 [F.
No. 178/289/84-IT(A-I)], dated 15-1-1985.
592. Interest on deposit made under
National Deposit Scheme - Whether taxable in the year of accrual
1. The National Deposit
Scheme was launched by the Central Government with effect from 30-7-1984. Interest on deposits under this Scheme is paid or
compounded on half-yearly basis. The Central Government has amended the Scheme
to provide that in respect of deposits made in financial year 1984-85, interest
up to 31-3-1985 will be deemed to have accrued on 31-3-1985 even though the
actual payment or compounding is made on half-yearly basis.
2. The Board is of the view that such interest is
taxable in the year of accrual.
Judicial
analysis
Referred to in - The above circular was referred to in Mrs. Ira Nenazie v. Fifth ITO [1993] 46 ITD 1 (Bom.) with
the following observations :
. . . the assessees
case is supported not only by the terms of the fixed deposit receipt but also
the decision of the Supreme Court in the case CIT v. T.N.K. Govindarajulu Chetty [1987]
165 ITR 231 as well as the CBDT Circular No. 371, dated 21-11-1983 and No. 406,
dated 15-1-1985. Moreover, under section 4 of the Income-tax Act, total income
of the previous year is assessable to tax and section 5 defines total income to
include income which accrues or is received.
Obviously, it has to be taxed at the earliest point of
time, namely, accrual, unless the assessee chooses to offer it on receipt basis
by maintaining the cash system of accounting. In the present case, the assessee
had, no doubt, offered the entire receipt originally
but on the footing that it was a capital receipt. Once it is held that it is a
revenue receipt, the assessee has to be given the option as indicated in the
Circulars of the CBDT and consequently the assessee is entitled to succeed in
the claim that only the interest which accrued in the
previous year should be assessed to tax in this previous year . . . .
(p. 3)
Circular : No. 409 [F.
No. 178/2/85-IT(A-I)], dated 12-2-1985.
455. Interest on cumulative deposit schemes of private
sector undertakings - Whether should be taxed on accrual basis annually
1. The issue regarding taxability of interest on cumulative deposit schemes
of the private sector undertakings has been considered
by the Board. The point for consideration is whether interest on cumulative
deposit schemes would be taxable on accrual basis for each year during which
the deposit is made or on receipt basis in the year of
receiving the total interest.
2. The Central Government has decided that interest on cumulative
deposit schemes of private sector undertakings should
be taxed on accrual basis annually.
3. The private sector undertakings will intimate the individual depositors
about the accrued interest so as to enable them to
disclose it in their returns of income filed before the income-tax authorities.
Circular : No.
410 [F. No. 178/68/83-IT (A-I)], dated 12-2-1985.
92. Whether interest earned from cumulative time
deposit held under Post Office Savings Bank (Cumulative Time Deposits) Rules,
1959, is also exempt under clause (15)(ii) of section 10
1. Section 10(15)(ii) provides for exemption from tax in
respect of interest on various specified securities, interest on deposits in
Post Office Savings Bank and bonus in respect of deposits under the Post Office
Savings Bank (Cumulative Time Deposits) Rules, 1959.
2. The Board have considered a reference on the
eligibility of interest received under Post Office savings Bank (Cumulative
Time Deposits) Rules, 1959. Since the Post Office Savings
Bank (Cumulative Time Deposits) Rules, 1959 is only one kind of account under
the Post Office Savings Accounts, such interest in respect of Post
Office Savings Bank (Cumulative Time Deposits) Account is also exempt under
section 10(15)(ii) to the extent to which the deposit does not
exceed the maximum amount to be deposited or invested therein (in
accordance with the regulations of the postal bank).
Circular
: No. 411 [F. No. 317/5/85-WT], dated 25-2-1985.
1374. Whether deposits held by a person
of Indian origin or citizen in NRE Account during his residence in the foreign
country will also be exempt under clause (xxxiii) of sub-section (1)
1. The provisions of section 6 of Wealth-tax Act, read
with section 10(4A) of the Income-tax Act, allow exemption from
wealth-tax on the moneys lying to the credit in a Non-resident (External) [NRE]
Account belonging to a person resident outside India within the meaning of
section 2(q) of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973. Section 5(1)(xxxiii) provides that in the case of an
assessee, being a person of Indian origin or a citizen of India who was
ordinarily residing in a foreign country and who has returned to India with the
intention of permanently residing in India, moneys and the value of assets
brought by him into India and the value of the assets acquired by him out of
such moneys are exempt from wealth-tax for a period of seven successive
assessment years commencing with the assessment year next following the date on
which such person returned to India.
2. A question has arisen as to whether the moneys
deposited by a person of Indian original or a citizen of India in a NRE Account
during the course of his residence in the foreign country will also be eligible
for the deduction under section 5(1)(xxxiii) as stated above.
3. The moneys to the credit in a NRE Account held by
a person resident outside
Judicial
analysis
Explained in -
The above circular was explained in Dr.
V.P. Gopinathan v. CWT [1996] 221 ITR 401
(Ker.), with the following observations :
A
reference to Circular No. 411 dated February 25, 1985, of the Central Board of Direct
Taxes would show that this exemption is understood to be applicable even by the
Department with regard to the monies deposited by such an assessee in a
Non-resident (External) Account during the course of his residence in the
foreign country. Equally, whether the assets are acquired in
Circular : No.
412 [F. No. 200/84/79-IT(A-I)], dated 2-3-1985.
801. Filing of returns by political parties/its units
at State or district level in terms of sub-section (4B) - Obligation therefor
1. Section 13A has been inserted by the Taxation Laws (Amendment) Act,
1978 and has come into effect from 1-4-1979. Under section 13A, any income of a
political party chargeable under the heads Interest on securities, Income from
house property, Income from other sources or any income by way of voluntary
contributions is exempt from income-tax.
2. Under Explanation to section 13A, political party means an
association or body of individual citizens of India registered with the
Election Commission of India as a political party under paragraph 3 of the
Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, and includes a
political party deemed to be registered with that Commission under the proviso
to sub-paragraph (2) of that paragraph.
3. The exemption under section 13A is subject to the fulfilment
of three conditions specified in the proviso to section 13A. These conditions
are :
(1) The
political party keeps and maintains such books of account and other documents
as would enable the Income-tax Officer to properly deduce its income therefrom.
(2) In
respect of each voluntary contribution in excess of ten thousand rupees, such
political party keeps and maintains a record of such contributions and the name
and address of the person who has made such contributions.
(3) The
accounts of such political party are audited by an accountant as defined in the
Explanation below to sub-section (2) of section 288.
4. Sub-section (4B) has been inserted in section 139 by the Taxation Laws
(Amendment) Act, 1978 under which every political party is obliged to file
every year a return of total income voluntarily. The total income for this
purpose is to be computed without giving effect to the provisions of section
13A. If such total income exceeds the maximum amount which is not chargeable to
tax, the liability of the political party to file the return of income
voluntarily arises. As regards filing of returns by the units of a political
party at State or District levels is concerned, it will depend upon whether
these units are only branches of the national party and their receipts and
expenditure form part of the account of the national party. If so, the units
need not file separate returns of income. In the case where units are
separately registered as political parties with the Election Commission of
India in terms of para 2 above, the requirement of
filing of returns by these units will apply as in the case of parent unit.
Circular : No. 413 [F.
No. 194/9/79-IT(A-I)], dated 4-3-1985.
54. How exemption is to be
allowed qua value of leave travel concession where employee is entitled
to more than one LTC in a block of 4 years
1. Section 10(5) provides for grant of exemption from income-tax to
the value of leave travel concession granted by an employer to an employee. In
regard to assessment for the assessment years 1971-72 and onwards this
concession is dealt with in section 10(5)(ii) which spells out
two situations, the first is where an employee receives travel concession or
assistance from his employer for himself and his family in connection with his
proceeding on leave to any place in India. The second is where an employee
receives travel concession or assistance from his employer or former employer
for himself and his family in connection with his proceeding to any place in
a. where the individual is entitled to such
travel concession or assistance once in a block of four calendar years
commencing from the calendar year 1974, the value of such travel concession or
assistance availed of in each such block;
b. where the individual is entitled to such
travel concession or assistance more than once in any such block of four
calendar years, the value of the travel concession or assistance first availed
of by him in each such block;
c. where such travel concession or assistance is
not availed of by the individual during any such block of four calendar years,
the value of the travel concession or assistance, if any first availed of by
the individual during the first calendar year of the immediately succeeding
block of four calendar years.
2. It has been represented that Income-tax Officers are interpreting
section 10(5), read with rule 2B, to allow exemption in respect of leave
travel concession for visiting any place in India other than the home town once
in a block of four years and if more than one leave travel concession is
allowed to an employee in this block, no exemption under section 10(5)
in respect of the second concession is allowed. The Board have examined the
matter. Under section 10(5), read with rule 2B, the value of leave
travel concession is exempt completely in a block of four years. However, if
the employee is entitled to more than one leave travel concession in a block of
four years, then full exemption is to be given for the first concession under
rule 2B and subsequent concession in the same block is limited to an amount
that would have been admissible had the employee visited his home town. It is
only the excess of the concession over the fare to the home town that has to be
treated as perquisite and taxed as part of salary income in respect of the
second leave travel concession for going to any place in India in the same
block of four years.
Circular : No. 414 [F. No. 204/21/80-IT(A-II)],
dated 14-3-1985.
308. Bonus - Whether deduction under clause (ii), first proviso[`1]1, is admissible if it is within the
minimum 8.33 per cent of salary and maximum 20 per cent of salary as per limits
laid down under the Payment of Bonus Act
Reference is invited to Boards Circular
No. 287, dated 4-12-1980 [Sl. No. 307 ante].
Under first proviso to section 36(1)(ii) deduction for payment of bonus
or commission to an employee for services rendered by him is restricted to the
amount payable under the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965. Under this Act, a minimum
of 8.33 per cent and a maximum of 20 per cent of salary is payable as bonus
depending on the circumstances of the case. Deduction under first proviso to
section 36(1)(ii) is not necessarily restricted to the minimum of 8.33
per cent of the salary in all cases. Whatever amount of bonus is payable in
the case within these two limits under the Payment of Bonus Act, is
admissible for deduction under the first proviso to section 36(1)(ii).
Circular : No. 415 [F.
No. 207/7/85-IT(A-II)], dated 14-3-1985.
SECTION 2(42A) l SHORT-TERM
CAPITAL ASSET
21. Whether gains arising on exchange
of gold bonds at the time of their redemption is short-term gain - Whether
answer to this query would depend upon the time that has passed between their
date of redemption and subsequent sale
1. The Government of
No capital gains will arise when the Bonds are
exchanged for gold on redemption. However, any subsequent sale, exchange or
transfer of such gold within the meaning of section 2(47) would attract
capital gains tax in respect of capital gains arising from such sale, exchange
or transfer. For the purpose of computation of capital gains, the cost of
acquisition of gold would be the market value of the bonds on the date of
redemption.
2. A question has arisen as to whether such capital gains should be
treated as long-term or short-term capital gains. The question has been
examined by the Board. The exchange of gold bonds at the time of redemption
is an altogether fresh transaction when an assessee acquires a different
asset. It has also been decided above that for the purposes of the
computation of capital gains, cost of acquisition of gold would be the market
value of the bonds on the date of redemption. The material date in this case
would, therefore, be the date of redemption of gold bonds which would be
treated as the date of acquisition of the gold. As per section 2(42A)
short-term capital asset means a capital asset held by an assessee for not more
than 36 months immediately preceding the date of transfer. The question as
to whether the gains arising in such cases would be short or long-term would,
therefore, depend upon the time that has passed between the date of redemption
of gold bonds and the subsequent sale of gold.
JUDICIAL
ANALYSIS
Explained in - In CIT v.
Oriental Containers Ltd. [1993] 70 Taxman 374 (Bom.), it was observed
that this circular merely states that no capital gain will arise when the Bonds
are exchanged for gold on redemption. However, any subsequent sale, exchange or
transfer of such gold would attract capital gains tax in respect of capital
gains arising from such sale, exchange or transfer. This Circular has no
application at all to the facts of the present case, namely, where assessee
sold National Defence Gold Bonds, 1980 and claimed
that excess realisation on such sale was neither
taxable as income nor as capital gains.
Explained in - In CIT v.
Debmalya Sur [1994]
207 ITR 996 (
In this connection, our attention has been
drawn to a Circular No. 415, dated March 14,1985, which, in fact, takes the
same view as has been canvassed by the Revenue. In the said circular, the
Central Board of Direct Taxes has made it clear that no capital gains will
arise when the bonds are exchanged for gold on redemption. However, subsequent
sale, exchange or transfer of such gold would attract capital gains tax and the
question as to whether the gains arising in such cases would be short or
long-term would depend upon the passage of time between the date of redemption
of the bonds and the subsequent sale of gold received on redemption.... (p.
1002)
referred to in - In Smt. L.M. Parikh v. Sixth ITO [1990]
81 CTR (Bom. - Trib.) 97, this circular was referred
to, with the following observations:
. . . . We are of the opinion that the
Circular No. 415, dated 14th March, 1985, is very clear on the point that the
date of redemption of the gold bonds would be treated as the date of
acquisition of the gold and while computing the capital gains, the cost of
acquisition of gold would be the market value of the bonds on the date of
redemption. The circular lays down that capital gains will not arise when the
bonds are exchanged for gold on redemption but would arise on subsequent sale
of the gold and for this purpose the computation shall be on the premise that
the cost of acquisition of gold is the market value of the bonds on the date of
redemption. The plea of the assessee that the date of redemption means the
actual date of redemption is misplaced. The press communique
issued by the Finance Ministry on 22nd Sept., 1980, incorporating the
guidelines states that for the purposes of computation of capital gains, the
cost of acquisition of gold is the market value of the bonds on the date of
redemption. On the date when the press communique was
issued, only one date of redemption was conceivable and that was the date when
the bonds were going to mature. Obviously, therefore, what is implied in the
press communique is the date of maturity of the
bonds, and could not be the actual date of redemption. It may also be stated
that the bonds were also in the nature of debt or liability and their date of
discharge would be the date when the same were due to be discharged which, in
this case, was 27th Oct., 1980. When the gold bond is issued to a person, there
is an agreement between him and the Government that the bond will be returned
on a certain future date, called the maturity date, and during that time, he
has the right to interest and he can also assign the bond. Under the terms of
agreement, the holder has a right to get back the gold on the maturity date
whereupon the interest would cease and it would not longer be assigned.
Therefore, on the maturity date, the character of this document which was the
bond, would change. It would not bear interest and it would lose assignability. On the maturity date, it is merely a
document of title to the gold and its presentation to the Reserve Bank would
entitle the holder of that document to the delivery of the gold. . . . . (p.
100)
Circular : No. 416 [F.
No. 176/11/84-IT(A-I)], dated 11-4-1985.
524. Fund/institution recognised
under section 10(23C)(iv)/(v) - Whether recognition
under section 80G is automatic
The Board had occasion to consider whether
the recognition under section 80G of the Income-tax Act is automatic in the
case of a fund or an institution notified by the Central Government under
section 10(23C)(iv)/(v). The Board is of the view that this is not
so. Recognition for purposes of section 80G is available when the fund or
institution satisfies all the five conditions listed under section 80G(5).
There may be instances of funds or institutions notified under section 10(23C)(iv)/(v)
not fulfilling some of the conditions of section 80G(5). Explanation 3 to
section 80G lays down that for the purpose of the section charitable purpose
does not include any purpose the whole or substantially the whole of which is
of a religious nature, whereas such institution may be notified under section
10(23C)(v).
Circular : No.
417 [F. No. 296/8/84-ED],dated 26-4-1985.
SECTION 6 l VALUATION OF
GIFTS
1454. Valuation of agricultural land comprised in tea,
coffee, rubber and cardamom plantations - Whether guidelines laid down in
Circular No. 357 are to apply for the purposes of gift-tax
The Board have decided that the guidelines for valuation of coffee
plantations laid down in Circular No. 357, dated 26-5-1983 for wealth-tax purposes
may be made applicable for valuation of such assets in respect of pending
cases in the State of
Circular : No. 418
501. Subscriptions to National Savings Certificates (VI
Issue/VII Issue) - Clarifications on certain issues regarding their eligibility
for deduction under the section
1. Under section 80C(2)(h), an individual or Hindu undivided family
or an association of persons or a body of individuals consisting only of
husband and wife governed by the system of community of property in force in
the Union territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Goa, Daman and Diu is entitled to
a deduction in respect of any sums paid in a previous year out of his or its
income chargeable to tax, as subscription to any such security of the Central
Government as may be specified in the Official Gazette. National Savings
Certificates (NSCs) VI and VII Issues have been
specified as securities for the purposes of section 80C(2)(h) and the notification
has come into force from April 2, 1983.
2. The following clarifications are issued in this connection :
(1) Whether income-tax exemption under section 8OC can
be claimed by first named person in case of joint holding of NSCs VI Issue/VII Issue? The deduction under section 80C
can be claimed by the person who has contributed the monies out of his income
chargeable to tax. It can be claimed by the first named person in a joint
holding if the first named person has so contributed the amount.
(2) Whether rebate of income-tax under section 80C
will be available where (a) NSCs VI Issue/VII
Issue are purchased in the name of spouse and minor children, and (b)
jointly by husband and wife ? - The answer to question (1) will apply also
here. The deduction under section 80C is to be given to the person who has
purchased the NSCs out of his income chargeable to
tax.
(3) Whether the interest accruing to the NSCs would be included in the hands of individual or in the
case of person(s) in whose name(s) the subscription has been made? - The
interest accruing on the subscription to the NSCs
will be included in the hands of the person who has subscribed from his income
chargeable to tax.
(4) Since the interest on 6-Year NSC VI Issue is
deemed to have been re-invested whether the holder of the NSC-VI Issue is
entitled to claim benefit of section 80C on this re-invested interest [Rules 19
and 28 of NSC-VI Issue Rules, 1981]?- The amount of interest re-invested
will satisfy the test of having been paid out of income chargeable to tax to
get the NSC and so will be entitled to deduction under section 80C.
(5) Whether a karta of a HUF
can buy NSCs in the name of any member of the HUF ? -
Where subscription to the NSCs in the name of any
member of the HUF, is shown by the family to have been made out of its income
chargeable to tax and the beneficial ownership in such certificates vests in
the family, the family would be entitled to a deduction under section 80C with
reference to such contribution.
(6) Whether the interest accrued on the subscription
would be included in the hands of the individual or in the hands of the person
in whose name the subscription has been made ? - The interest accrued would
be included in the hands of the persons who purchased the NSC out of their
income chargeable to tax.
Circular : No.
405 [F. No. 178/1/84-IT(A-I)], dated 15-1-1985 as corrected by Circular : No. 418 [F. No.
178/1/84-IT(A-I)], dated 2-5-1985.
Circular:
No. 419 [F. No. 333/3/85-GT], dated 1-6-1985.
Section 2
Definitions
SECTION 2(xii) l GIFT
1435. Whether gifts made by karta
on marriage of his daughter fall within the ambit of gift under clause (xii)
In the case of CGT v. Basant Kumar Aditya Vikram Birla [1982] 137 ITR
72 (
Circular :
No. 420 [F. No.
204/10/83-IT(A-II)], dated 4-6-1985.
342. Security deposited with postal authorities for telex
connection - Whether admissible as business expenditure
1. It has been brought to the notice of the Board that, as per an
amendment made in the Indian Telegraph Rules with effect from 26-2-1983, a
subscriber for a telex connection (either for existing one or a new one) is
required to pay Rs. 10,000 towards security deposit to cover a part of the cost
of the departmental equipment installed at the premises of the subscriber which
will also protect the Postal Department against any unpaid dues by the subscriber.
It has been urged that the said amount of security deposit may be allowed as a bona
fide business expenditure for the year in which the said amount is paid on
the same lines as the initial payment for a telephone connection under the Own
Your Telephone Scheme.
2. The matter has been examined and the Board are of the opinion that
since the said deposit of Rs. 10,000 for a telex connection does not earn any
interest when the telex machine is installed, at that stage, this amount may
be treated as a revenue expenditure allowable as a deduction, if the assessee
makes such a claim. However, when the amount is returned by the postal
authorities when the telex connection is finally closed, the refund of Rs.
10,000 shall be treated as an income of the assessee of the year in which the
amount is refunded.
FINANCE
ACT, 1985 - CIRCULAR NO. 421, DATED 12-6-1985
Circular : No. 422 [F. No. 201/156/85-IT(A-II)], dated 19-6-1985.
408. Clarification regarding penalty under section
271B for failure to comply with provisions of section 44AB for assessment year
1985-86
1. The Board had vide Circular No. 422, dated 19-6-1985 (see Clarification
2) decided that the penalty proceedings under section 271B of the Income-tax
Act, 1961, for failure to comply with the provisions of section 44AB should not
be initiated for assessment year 1985-86, in cases where :
(i) the
Audit Report prescribed under section 44AB read with rule 6G has been obtained
by 30th September, 1985; and
(ii) the
self-assessment tax under section 140A of the Act has been paid within the
normal period prescribed under section 139(1) of the Act for filing return of
income.
Subsequently, on receipt of
representations, the matter was reconsidered and Circular No. 582 was issued on
23-10-1990 clarifying that no penalty would be imposed for the assessment year
1985-86 under section 271B in cases where the audit report prescribed under
section 44AB read with rule 6G had been obtained by 30th September, 1985.
2. The matter has been reconsidered by the Board in consultation with the
Ministry of Law and it has been decided to withdraw the Circular No. 582,
dated 23-10-1990. [Clarification 1].
Circular : No.
628, dated 6-3-1992.
CLARIFICATION 1
1. Vide Circular No. 422, dated
19th June, 1985 (Clarification 2), the Board had directed that the
penalty proceedings under section 271B of the Income-tax Act, leviable for
non-compliance of the provisions of section 44AB of the Act, should not be
initiated for the assessment year 1985-86 in cases where :
(i) the
audit report prescribed under section 44AB, read with rule 6G has been obtained
by 30th September, 1985; and
(ii) the
self-assessment tax under section 140A of the Act has been paid within the
normal period prescribed under section 139(1) of the Act for filing return of
income.
2. Representations were subsequently received requesting the Board to
clarify whether the conditions mentioned at (i) & (ii)
above were cumulative or independent. The Revenue Audit has also raised
objections that penalty under section 271B should have been levied in cases
where self-assessment tax was not paid within the normal period prescribed
under section 139(1) of the Act, but was paid within the extended period, i.e.,
30th September, 1985.
3. Penalty under section 271 B of the Act is leviable only for
non-compliance with the provisions of section 44AB of the Act and not for delay
in payment of self-assessment tax. Therefore, there seems to be an obvious
anomaly in the said Circular No. 422 insofar as it linked imposition of penalty
under section 271B with the payment of self-assessment tax.
4. It is, therefore, clarified that no penalty will be imposed for the
assessment year 1985-86 under section 271B in cases where the audit report
prescribed under section 44AB, read with rule 6G, has been obtained by 30th
September, 1985. This clarification applies only to assessment year 1985-86,
being the first year of operation of section 44AB of the Act.
Circular : No.
582, dated 23-10-1990.
JUDICIAL
ANALYSIS
Explained in - In
The circular obviously shows that the revenue itself
has delinked the payment of self-assessment tax, a
natural consequence of filing return under section 139(1), from purview of
audit report under section 44AB (sic). I have emphasised
the word only in the Circular of the CBDT, which manifests the view of
the CBDT in these matters. In my view as the assessee had obtained the audit
report before the prescribed date of section 44AB and had filed it with the
return, which was accepted, no penalty under section 271B should be levied.
clarification 2
1. Section 44AB lays down that every person carrying on
business, whose sales, turnover or gross receipts exceed rupees forty lakhs or
carrying on a profession, whose gross receipts exceed rupees ten lakhs, shall
get his accounts of such previous year audited before the specified date and
obtain before that date the report of such audit in the prescribed form.
2. Under Explanation of this section, specified
date means the date of the expiry of four months from the end of the previous year,
or where there are more than one previous year, from the end of the previous
year which expired last before the commencement of the assessment year or 30th
day of June of the assessment year, whichever is later.
3. Rule 6G of the Income-tax Rules, 1962 inserted by the
Income-tax (Amendment) Rules, 1985 with effect from 1-4-1985, prescribes the
manner and Forms in which the audit report required under section 44AB is to be
submitted. These rules were notified on 31-1-1985.
4. A number of representations have been received from assessees and various trade associations expressing their
difficulties in getting the accounts audited by the specified date this year.
The matter has accordingly been considered by the Board. This being the first
year of the operation of the section and considering that the relevant rule was
notified only on 31-1-1985, the Board has decided that the penalty
proceedings under section 271B for failure to comply with the provisions of
section 44AB should not be initiated for the assessment year 1985-86, in cases
where :
(i) the audit
report prescribed under section 44AB read with rule 6G has been obtained
by 30-9-1985; and
(ii) the self-assessment tax under section
140A has been paid within the normal period prescribed under section
139(1) for filing return of income.
Note : The above circular was referred to in ITO v. Arun Kumar Bhuwalka
[1992] 40 ITD 373 (
FINANCE ACT, 1985
ESTATE
DUTY ACT, 1953
SECTION 4 l ESTATE DUTY AUTHORITIES
1511.
Extent of powers of Commissioners of Income-tax (Appeals) appointed as Appellate
Controllers of Estate Duty - Notification issued under sub-section (2A)
In
exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (2A) of section 4 of the Estate
Duty Act, 1953 (34 of 1953), and in partial modification of all previous
notifications and orders on the subject, the Central Board of Direct Taxes
hereby directs that the Commissioners of Income-tax (Appeals) appointed as
Appellate Controllers of Estate Duty shall exercise their powers in respect of
all estates of deceased persons including cases where the principal value as
assessed to estate duty by the Assistant Controller of Estate Duty is less than
Rs. 2 lakhs. In cases where the assessed principal value of the estate is less
than Rs. 2 lakhs, the above Appellate Controllers shall perform their functions
only in respect of assessment orders passed on or after 1st January, 1980.
Notification : No. SO 93, dated 27-1-1979.
1512.
Appointment of estate duty valuers for different
categories of assets and scale of charges for their remuneration - Notification
issued under sub-section (3)
1. In supersession
of all the previous notices issued by this Ministry regarding appointment of valuers under section 4(3) of the Estate Duty Act, 1953, it
is notified for general information that the Central Government proposes to
appoint persons as valuers under section 4(3) of the
Estate Duty Act, 1953, for different categories of assets and to fix a scale of
charges for their remuneration.
2. Persons desiring to be
appointed as approved valuers must satisfy the
conditions mentioned in Annex I to this notice and should apply for
appointment in the form prescribed in Annex II.
3. No person shall qualify
for appointment as an approved valuer, other than as
a Valuer of Works of Art, if he is employed under
Government or any other employer.
4. No person shall qualify
for appointment as an approved valuer, if
(a) he
has been dismissed or removed from Government service ; or
(b) he
has been convicted of an offence connected with any proceedings under the
Income-tax Act, 1961 (43 of 1961) or the Wealth-tax Act, 1957 (27 of 1957) or
the Gift-tax Act, 1958 (18 of 1958) or a penalty has been imposed on him under
clause (iii) of sub-section (1) of section 271, or clause (i) of
section 273 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 or under clause (iii) of
sub-section (1) of section 18 of the Wealth-tax Act, 1957 or under clause (iii)
of sub-section (1) of section 17 of the Gift-tax Act, 1958 ; or
(c) he
is an undischarged insolvent ; or
(d) he
has been convicted of any offence and sentenced to a term of imprisonment or
has been found guilty of misconduct in his professional capacity which, in the
opinion of the Central Government, renders him unfit to be registered as a valuer.
The
requirement laid down in Annex I that the applicant should have, for a
period of not less than five years,
(i) rendered
service in any capacity, or
(ii) taught
any subject, or
(iii) practised any profession, or
(iv) gained
experience in any other capacity or field, as specified therein,
shall
be deemed to have been fulfilled if the period for which the applicant has
rendered such service, taught such subject, practised
such profession or otherwise gained experience in such other capacity or field,
taken either singly or collectively, is not less than five years and the
Central Government is of opinion that the applicant has acquired sufficient
experience in the valuation of the class of assets of which he seeks to be
approved as a valuer.
5. Scale of fees to be
charged by the approved valuer : (1) Subject to
the provisions of items (2) and (3) below the fees to be charged
by an approved valuer for valuation of any asset
shall not exceed the amount calculated at the following rates, namely :
- on the first Rs. 50,000 of the asset as valued
: 1/2 per cent of the value ;
- on the next Rs. 1 lakh of the asset as valued
: 1/4 per cent of the value ; and
- on the balance of the asset as valued : 1/8
per cent of the value.
(2)
Where two or more assets are required to be valued by an approved valuer at the instance of an assessee, all such assets
shall be deemed to constitute a single asset for the purposes of calculating
the fees payable to such approved valuer.
(3)
Where the amount of fees calculated in accordance with items (1) and (2)
is less than Rs. 50, the approved valuer may charge
Rs. 50 as his fees.
Notification
: F.
No. 300/355/74-ED, dated 1-8-1975.
ANNEX
I - CONDITIONS TO BE SATISFIED
1. A valuer
of immovable property (other than agricultural lands, plantations, forests,
mines and quarries) shall have the following qualifications, namely :
(i) he
must either be a graduate in civil engineering, architecture or town planning
of a recognised university or possess a qualification
recognised as sufficient qualification for the
purposes of recruitment to superior posts and services under the Central
Government ; or
(ii)
(A) he must be a person formerly
employed,
(a) in
a post under Government as a gazetted officer ; or
(b) in
a post under any other employer carrying a remuneration of not less than Rs.
1,000 per month,
and in either case must have retired or
resigned from such employment after having rendered service for not less than
five years as a valuer, architect, or town planner,
or in the field of construction of buildings, designing of structures or
development of land ; or
(c) as
a professor, reader or lecturer in a university, college or any other
institution preparing students for a degree in civil engineering, architecture
or town planning, or for an equivalent qualification referred to in clause (i),
and must have retired or resigned from such employment after having taught for
not less than five years any of the subjects of valuation, quantity surveying,
building construction, architecture, or town planning; or
(B) he
must have been in practice as a consulting engineer, surveyor, or architect for
a period of not less than five years and must have, in the opinion of the
Central Government, acquired sufficient experience in any of the following
fields :
(a) valuation
of buildings and urban lands;
(b) quantity
surveying in building construction;
(c) architectural
or structural designing of buildings or town planning; or
(d) construction
of buildings or development of land.
2. A valuer
of agricultural lands [other than plantations] referred to in sub-rule (3)
shall have the following qualifications, namely :
(i) he
must be graduate in agricultural science of a recognised
university and must have worked as a farm valuer for
a period of not less than five years; or
(ii) he
must be a person formerly employed in a post under Government as a Collector,
Deputy Collector, Settlement Officer, Land Valuation Officer, Superintendent of
Land Records, Agricultural Officer, Registrar under the Registration Act, 1908
(16 of 1908), or any other officer of equivalent rank performing similar
functions and must have retired or resigned from such employment after having
rendered service in any one or more of the posts aforesaid for an aggregate
period of not less than five years.
3. A valuer
of coffee plantation, tea plantation, rubber plantation or, as the case may be,
cardamom plantation shall have the following qualifications, namely :
(i) he
must have, for a period of not less than five years, owned or acted as manager of
a coffee, tea, rubber, or as the case may be, cardamom plantation having an
area under plantation of not less than four hectares in the case of a cardamom
plantation or forty hectares in the case of any other plantation; or
(ii) he
must be a person formerly employed in a post under Government as a Collector,
Deputy Collector, Settlement Officer, Land Valuation Officer, Superintendent of
Land Records, Agricultural Officer, Registrar under the Registration Act, 1908
(16 of 1908) or any other officer of equivalent rank performing similar
functions and must have retired or resigned from such employment after having
rendered service in any one or more of the posts aforesaid for an aggregate
period of not less than five years, out of which not less than three years must
have been in areas wherein coffee, tea, rubber or as the case may be, cardamom,
is extensively grown.
4. A valuer
of forests must be a person formerly employed in a post under Government and
must have retired or resigned from such employment after having rendered
service for not less than five years in a gazetted
post requiring specialised knowledge in forestry.
5. A valuer
of mines and quarries shall have the following qualifications, namely :
(i) he
must be a graduate in mining of a recognised
university, or must possess a qualification recognised
as sufficient qualification for the purposes of recruitment to superior posts
and services under the Government of India; or
(ii) he
must be a person formerly employed
(a) in
a post under Government as a gazetted officer, or
(b) in
a post under any other employer carrying a remuneration of not less than Rs.
1,000 per month,
and, in either case, must have retired
or resigned from such employment after having rendered service as a mining
engineer for not less than five years.
6. A valuer
of stocks, shares, debentures, securities, shares in partnership firms and of
business assets including goodwill, but excluding those referred to in
sub-sections (1) to (5) and (7) to (10) shall have the following
qualifications, namely :
(i) he
must be a member of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or the
Institute of Cost & Works Accountants of India or the Institute of Company
Secretaries of India; and
(ii)
(A) he must have been in practice
as a Chartered Accountant or a Cost and Works Accountant for a period of not
less than five years, or
(B) he
must be a person formerly employed
(a) in
a post under Government as a gazetted officer, or
(b) in
a post under any other employer carrying a remuneration of not less than Rs.
1,000 per month, or
(c) as
a Company Secretary or an Assistant Company Secretary in a post carrying a
remuneration of not less than Rs. 1,000 per month and must have retired or resigned
from such employment after having rendered service for a period of not less
than five years,
and, in either case, must have retired
or resigned from such employment after having rendered service for a period of
not less than five years in the field of audit and accounts or taxation works.
7. A valuer
of machinery and plant shall have the following qualifications, namely :
(i) he
must either be a graduate in mechanical engineering or electrical engineering
of a recognised university, or possess a
qualification which is recognised as sufficient
qualification for the purposes of recruitment to superior posts and services
under the Central Government; or
(ii)
(A) he must be a person formerly
employed
(a) in
a post under Government as a gazetted officer, or
(b) in
a post under any other employer carrying a remuneration of not less than Rs.
1,000 per month,
and, in either case, must have retired
or resigned from such employment after having rendered service as a mechanical
or electrical engineer for a period of not less than five years, or
(c) as
a professor, reader or lecturer in a university, college or institution
preparing students for a degree in mechanical or electrical engineering or for
an equivalent qualification referred to in clause (i), and must have
retired or resigned from such employment after having taught for a period of
not less than five years, or
(B) he
must have been in practice as a consulting engineer for a period of not less
than five years and must have, in the opinion of the Central Government,
acquired sufficient experience in the valuation of machinery and plant.
8. A valuer
of jewellery must have been, for a period of not less than five years, a sole
proprietor or partner in a partnership firm carrying on jewellery business
which has a turnover of not less than Rs. 1 lakh or profits of not less than
Rs. 15,000 in two out of the three accounting years immediately preceding the
year in which the application for appointment as an approved valuer is made by him.
9. A valuer
of works of arts shall have the following qualifications, namely :
(i) he
must have specialised by virtue of his academic and
professional pursuits in the particular line of art, for the works of which he
seeks to be registered as a valuer; and
(ii) he
must have served in any one or more of the following capacities, namely,
(a) Director
General or Superintending Archaeologist of the Archaeological Survey of
(b) Director
of National Museum, New Delhi, Salar Jung Museum,
Hyderabad, Prince of Wales Museum, Bombay, Indian Museum, Calcutta, Asutosh Museum, Calcutta, Madras Museum, Madras, or Bharat Kala Bhavan,
Varanasi;
(c) Principal
of a
(d) Member
of the Art Purchase Committee of any of the Museums referred to in sub-clause (b),
or of the Lalit Kala Akademi.
10. A valuer
of life interest reversions and interest in expectancy shall have the following
qualifications, namely :
(i) he
must be a graduate of recognised university; and
(ii)
(A) he must have been in practice
as an actuary under the Insurance Act, 1938 (4 of 1938) for a period of not
less than five years; or
(B) he
must have rendered continuous service for a period of not less than five years
as an actuary under Government or in the Life Insurance Corporation of India
established under the Life Insurance Act, 1956 (31 of 1956);
(C) he
must have practised as an actuary or served as such
under Government or in the Life Insurance Corporation of
ANNEX
II - FORM OF APPLICATION
Application for
appointment as a valuer under section 4(3)
of the Estate Duty Act, 1953
To
The Secretary,
Central Board of
Direct Taxes,
Sir,
I hereby apply for appointment
as a valuer of
.........................................................................
(class of assets)
under section 4(3) of the Estate Duty Act, 1953. The following particulars are
furnished herewith :
1. Name in full (Block letter)
2. Fathers/Husbands name
3. Permanent address
4. Present address :
(i) Office
(ii) Residence
5. Income-tax Permanent Account Number
6. Date of birth
7. Educational
qualifications, including professional or
technical qualifications
(Enclose attested copy of degree or
diploma certificate)
8. If member of any professional or technical
institution, give particulars
9. (a) Present
occupation and since when
(b) If a partner of a firm, name, address and business/profession of the
firm (Date of joining the partnership to be indicated)
10. If already engaged in the profession or
calling of a valuer, whether
(a) on your own behalf (since when)
(b) in partnership with others (give names and addresses of other
partners) (Date of joining the partnership to be indicated)
11. Date of commencement of practice as a valuer
12. (a) Give
full details of your experience which qualifies you for appointment as valuer (Documentary evidence to be given)
(b) A list of assets valued or works executed during the last three
years should be enclosed
13. Whether you have been appointed as valuer under section 34AB of the Wealth-tax Act, 1957? If
so, give registration No. with File No. and date
14. Name, occupation and address of three
persons (not being relatives or business partners) with whom you have had
regular contact over the last five years (one of whom should preferably be a valuer) and of whom you authorise
the Board to enquire regarding your reputation and character
15. (a) State
if any liability towards income-tax, wealth-tax or gift-tax outstanding against
you
(b)
If so, whether satisfactory arrangements
for payment thereof have been made
(c) Attach
Income-tax Clearance Certificate from the ITO concerned
16. Whether you have been convicted of any
offence and sentenced to a term of imprisonment? If so, give details of offence
and sentence
17. Whether you have been found guilty of
misconduct in your professional capacity? If so, give details
I hereby declare
that I am not disqualified from applying for appointment by reason of any of
the provisions contained in clauses (a) to (d) of paragraph (4)
of Notification No. 300/355/74-ED, dated 1-8-1975.
I further declare
that I shall
(a) make
an impartial and true valuation of any asset which I may be required to value;
(b) furnish
the report of such valuation in the prescribed form;
(c) charge
fees at a rate not exceeding the rate or rates prescribed by the Board in this
behalf; and
(d) not
undertake any valuation of any asset in which I have a direct or indirect
interest.
.................................................
Signature of
Applicant
Verification
I, .....................................................................................,
do declare
[name in block letters]
(i) that
what is stated in the above application is true and correct to the best of my
knowledge and belief, and
(ii) that
the copies sent herewith are the true copies.
....................................................
Place ............................ Signature
of Applicant
Date ............................
LIST OF
ENCLOSURES
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
etc.
Circular: No.
425 [F. No. 275/31/85-IT(B)], dated 24-7-1985.
FINANCIAL YEAR 1985-86
1759. Instructions for deduction of tax at source from
winnings from horse races during financial year 1985-86 at the rates specified in
Part II of the First Schedule to Finance Act, 1985
1. I am directed to invite a reference to this Departments Circular No.
389 [F. No. 275/16/84-IT(B)], dated 4-8-1984 on the above subject, wherein the
rates at which deduction of tax under section 194BB to be made during the
financial year 1984-85 from winnings from horse races were communicated.
2. The Finance Act, 1985 prescribes the rates for deduction of tax at
source for the financial year 1985-86 as specified in Part II of the First
Schedule to the said Act. They are as below :
(i) In the case of a person other
than a company : |
|
(a) where the person is resident |
IT 30 per cent, SC Nil; |
(b) where the person is not
resident |
IT 30 per cent of the amount of the
income; |
|
or |
|
income-tax and in respect of the income
at the rates prescribed in Sub-Paragraph I of Paragraph A of Part III of the
First Schedule to the Finance Act, 1985 (Annex), if such income had been
the total income, |
|
whichever is higher. |
(ii) In the case of a company : |
|
(a) where the company is a
domestic company |
22.575 per cent (IT 21.5% + SC 1.075 per
cent) |
(b) where the company is not a
domestic company |
68.25 per cent (IT 65 per cent + SC 3.25
per cent) |
3. The tax deducted should be paid to the credit of the Central
Government by remitting it into the office of the Reserve Bank of
4. Attention is also invited to section 276B wherein it is provided that
if a person without reasonable cause or excuse fails to deduct, or after
deducting fails to pay the tax as required under the provisions of Chapter
XVII-B, he shall be punishable
(i) in
a case where the amount of tax which he has failed to deduct or pay exceeds one
hundred thousand rupees, with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not
be less than six months but which may extend to seven years and with fine; and
(ii) in
any other case, with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less
than three months but which may extend to three years and with fine.
5. These instructions are not exhaustive and are issued only with a view
to helping the persons responsible for making deductions of tax under this
section. Whenever there is a difference of opinion, a reference should always
be made to the provisions of the Act, and the relevant Finance Act through
which the changes in the tax structure are made.
ANNEX
- EXTRACT FROM THE FINANCE ACT, 1985 - SUB-PARAGRAPH I
OF PARAGRAPH A OF PART III OF THE
FIRST SCHEDULE
Paragraph A
Sub-Paragraph I
In the case of every individual or Hindu
undivided family or unregistered firm or other association of persons or body
of individuals, whether incorporated or not, or every artificial juridical
person referred to in sub-clause (vii) of clause (31) of section
2 of the Income-tax Act, not being a case to which Sub-Paragraph II of this
Paragraph or any other paragraph of this Part applies.
Rates of
income-tax
(1) |
where the total income does not exceed
Rs. 18,000 |
Nil; |
(2) |
where the total income exceeds Rs.
18,000 but does not exceed Rs. 25,000 |
25 per cent of the amount by which the
total income exceeds Rs. 18,000; |
(3) |
where the total income exceeds Rs.
25,000 but does not exceed Rs. 50,000 |
Rs. 1,750 plus 30 per cent of the
amount by which the total income exceeds Rs. 25,000; |
(4) |
where the total income exceeds Rs.
50,000 but does not exceed Rs. 1,00,000 |
Rs. 9,250 plus 40 per cent of the
amount by which the total income exceeds Rs. 50,000; |
(5) |
where the total income exceeds Rs.
1,00,000 |
Rs. 29,250 plus 50 per cent of
the amount by which the total income exceeds Rs. 1,00,000. |
Circular: No.
426 [F. No. 275/32/85-IT(B)],
dated 24-7-1985.
Financial year 1985-86
1775. Instructions for deduction of tax at source from
insurance commission during financial year 1985-86 at the rates specified in
Part II of First Schedule to Finance Act, 1985
1. I am directed to invite a reference to this Departments Circular No.
391 [F. No. 275/17/84-IT(B)], dated 8-8-1984 wherein the rates at which the
deduction of income-tax was to be made during the financial year 1984-85 from
payments of income by way of insurance commission under section 194D were
intimated.
The Finance Act, 1985 prescribes in Part
II of the First Schedule, the following rates for deduction of tax at source
under section 194D during the financial year 1985-86:
|
|
Income-tax
|
Surcharge
|
I. |
In the case of a person (other than a company), who
is resident in |
10 per cent |
Nil; |
II. |
In the case of a domestic company |
21.5 per cent |
1.075 per cent. |
2. Though the provisions of section 194D apply only in relation
to income by way of insurance commission paid to a resident, under the
provisions of section 195 income-tax is required to be deducted from payments
(including payments of income by way of insurance commission) made to a
non-corporate non-resident taxpayer as also a company which is neither an
Indian company nor a company which has made the prescribed arrangements for
declaration and payment within India of dividends in the manner prescribed
under rule 27 of the Income-tax Rules, 1962. In the case of a person other than
a company, who is not resident in India, the rate of deduction of tax at
source, as specified in item 1(b)(i) of Part II of the First
Schedule to the Finance Act, 1985, is income-tax at 30 per cent of the income
by way of insurance commission or income-tax in respect of the income at the
rates prescribed in Sub-Paragraph I of Paragraph A of Part III of the said
Schedule (extracts given in Annex) if such income had been the total
income of such person, whichever is higher. In the case of a company which is
not a domestic company, tax on insurance commission is to be deducted at the
rate of 68.25 per cent (income-tax 65 per cent plus surcharge 3.25 per
cent).
3. The substance of the main provisions in the law
insofar as they relate to deduction of income-tax from insurance commission is
given hereunder;
(1) For
purposes of deduction of tax at source insurance commission will mean an income
by way of remuneration or reward, whether by way of commission or otherwise,
for soliciting or procuring insurance business (including business relating to
continuance, renewal or reviving of policies of insurance).
(2)
Deduction will be made at the time of the credit of the income to the account
of, or the payment thereof (by whatever mode) to the payee, whichever is
earlier.
(3) The
tax deducted should be paid to the credit of the Central Government by
remitting it into the Government Treasury or the office of the Reserve Bank of
(4)
Blank challans for making payment of the tax deducted
at source can be obtained from the Income-tax Officers. For the convenience of
taxpayers colour band challan
forms have been prescribed. Each such challan form is
also numbered on the top left hand corner. The payment should be made on the
appropriate challan accordingly as indicated below :
Deduction of
tax from payment of insurance commission made to companies |
Challan No. 2 [in red colour band] |
Deduction of
tax from payment of insurance commission made to non-companies, i.e.,
individuals, etc. |
Challan No. 8 [in blue colour band] |
It is very
necessary for correct accounting of tax payments in the Income-tax Department
that the appropriate challan form is used for making
the payments.
Where the payment
of tax includes any surcharge, it should be shown separately in the challan, in the space provided for that purpose.
(5) The
amount of tax to be deducted at source should be rounded off to the nearest
rupee ignoring amounts less than 50 paise and increasing the amount of 50 paise
or more to one rupee, as required under section 288B.
(6) At
the time of deducting tax from the insurance commission credited to an agents
account, adjustment for any debits made in his account in respect of excess
commission credited or paid to him earlier is not permissible and income-tax
must be deducted from the full amount of commission credited to his account.
(7) It
will be open to the recipient of the commission, other than a company, to make
an application in Form No. 13D to the Income-tax Officer concerned and obtain
from him a certificate authorising the person responsible for paying the income
by way of insurance commission to deduct tax at source at such rates, or deduct
no tax, as may be appropriate to his case. Such a certificate will be valid for
the period specified therein unless it is cancelled by the Income-tax Officer
earlier.
(8) The
person responsible for making the payments should issue a certificate to the
payee in Form No. 19D showing therein the amount of income by way of insurance
commission credited or paid, the amount of tax deducted at source, and the date
of payment to the Government account.
(9) The
person making deduction of tax in accordance with section 194D from income by
way of insurance should send to the Income-tax Officer having jurisdiction to
assess him :
(a) A
certificate in Form No. 26D quarterly on July 15, October 15, January 15 and
April 15, in respect of deduction of tax made by him during the preceding
quarter.
(b) A statement in Form No. 26E on or before 30th
June each year containing details of amounts of insurance commission from which
tax has been deducted by him during the immediately preceding financial year.
(c) A statement in Form No. 26F on or before 30th
day of June each year containing details of amount of insurance commission paid
or credited during the immediately preceding financial year without deduction
of tax.
ANNEX I - EXTRACT FROM SUB-PARAGRAPH I OF PARAGRAPH A OF PART III OF
THE FIRST SCHEDULE TO FINANCE ACT, 1985
Paragraph A
Sub-Paragraph I
In the case of
every individual or Hindu undivided family or unregistered firm or other
association of persons or body of individuals, whether incorporated or not, or
every artificial juridical person referred to in sub-clause (vii) of
clause (31) of section 2 of the Income-tax Act, not being a case to
which Sub-Paragraph II of this Paragraph or any other paragraph of this Part
applies:
Rates of income-tax
(1) |
where the total
income does not exceed Rs. 18,000 |
Nil; |
(2) |
where the total
income exceeds Rs. 18,000 but does not exceed Rs. 25,000 |
25 per cent
of the amount by which the total income exceeds Rs. 18,000; |
(3) |
where the total
income exceeds Rs. 25,000 but does not exceed Rs. 50,000 |
Rs. 1,750 plus
30 per cent of the amount by which the total income exceeds Rs. 25,000; |
(4) |
where the total
income exceeds Rs. 50,000 but does not exceed Rs. 1,00,000 |
Rs. 9,250 plus
40 per cent of the amount by which the total income exceeds Rs. 50,000; |
(5) |
where the total
income exceeds Rs. 1,00,000 |
Rs. 29,250 plus
50 per cent of the amount by which the total income exceeds Rs. 1,00,000. |
Circular: No.
427 [F. No. 275/25/85-IT(B)],
dated 31-7-1985.
FINANCIAL YEAR
1985-86
1719.
Instructions for deduction of tax at source from interest on securities during
financial year 1985-86 at the rates specified in Part III of First Schedule to
Finance Act, 1985
1. I am directed to invite a reference to the Boards Circular No. 393 [F.
No. 275/14/84-IT(B)], dated 5-9-1984, wherein you were requested to issue
necessary instructions for making deduction of income-tax at source from the
payments of Interest on Government securities as prescribed in the Finance Act,
1983, as modified by the Finance Act, 1984.
2. A few changes in the rates of tax at which deduction has to be made
from the payments of interest on Government securities during the financial
year 1985-86 have been made in the Finance Act, 1985. I am accordingly, enclosing
a copy of the draft circular letter setting out the rates at which income-tax
and surcharge should be deducted from such payments after March 31, 1985. You
may please issue a circular on the basis of this draft to all Treasury Officers
and Sub-Treasury Officers under your control individually with a view to
ensuring that the provisions of the Act are strictly adhered to by them.
DRAFT CIRCULAR REFERRED TO IN
INSTRUCTIONS
1. I am to invite your attention to this office letter regarding deduction
of income-tax and surcharge from interest on Government securities during the
financial year 1984-85.
2. According to the Finance Act, 1985, except in the case of interest on
securities payable to Life Insurance Corporation of
|
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Rate of
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Rate
of
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Income-tax |
Surcharge |
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I. |
In the case of a person other than a company : |
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(i) |
Where the person is resident in |
10 per cent |
Nil |
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(ii) |
Where the person is not resident in |
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(1) |
In the case of a non-resident Indian |
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(A) |
on investment income and long- term capital gains |
20 per cent |
Nil |
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|
(B) |
on income by way of interest payable on a tax-free
security |
15 per cent |
Nil |
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|
(C) |
on the whole of the other income |
Income-tax at 30 per cent of the amount
of the income |
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or |
||||
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income-tax in respect of the income at
the rates prescribed in Sub-paragraph I of Paragraph A of Part III of the
First Schedule to the Finance Act, 1985 (Annex. I), if such income had
been the total income, whichever is higher. |
||||
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(2) |
In the case of any other person, |
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(A) |
on the whole of income (excluding interest payable
on a tax-free security) |
[As against 1(c) above] |
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(B) |
on income by way of interest payable on a tax-free
security |
15 per cent |
Nil
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II. |
In the case of a company : |
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(i) |
Where the company is a domestic company on interest
on securities (excluding interest payable on a tax-free security) |
21.5 per cent |
1.075 per cent |
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(ii) |
Where the company is not a domestic company |
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(A) |
on interest payable on a tax-free security |
44 per cent |
2.2 per cent |
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(B) |
on interest on other securities |
65 per cent |
3.25 per cent. |
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3. The term domestic company means an Indian company or any other company
which, in respect of its income liable to income-tax under the Act, for the
assessment year commencing on the 1st day of April, 1985, has made the prescribed
arrangements for the declaration and payment within India of the dividends
(including dividends on preference shares) payable out of such income in
accordance with the provisions of section 194.
4. In making payment or crediting interest on Government securities after
April 1, 1985, you are requested to deduct income-tax at the rates specified
above, except in cases, where an exemption or abatement certificate granted by
an Income-tax Officer under sub-section (1) of section 197 is produced. In this
connection, the following points should be kept in view :
(1) Exemption or abatement
certificates issued before April 1, 1985, authorising deduction of tax at a
particular rate expressed as percentage of the amount of interest should be
accepted and acted upon, if operative for the financial year ending on March
31, 1986.
(2) Where a certificate is issued
by the Income-tax Officer on or after 1st April, 1985, authorising deduction of
tax at a specified rate in respect of any person, income-tax should be deducted
at the rates specified therein.
(3) No tax should be deducted in
cases in which, from a certificate issued by the Income-tax Officer or
otherwise, you are satisfied that the payee is a person exempt from payment of
income-tax under sections 10 to 13A.
(4) No tax should be deducted from
interest payable on 7-year National Savings Certificate (IV Issue).
(5) No tax should be deducted from
any interest payable on National Development Bonds.
(6) No tax should be deducted from
any interest payable on any other security of the Central or State Government
where the security is held by a resident individual, and the holder makes a
declaration in writing in duplicate in the prescribed form and verified in the
prescribed manner to the effect that his estimated total income of the previous
year in which such income is to be included in computing his total income will
be less than the minimum liable to income-tax as provided in section 197A(1). A
copy of declaration form prescribed under the provisions of section 197A is at Annex
II. A copy of such declaration should be forwarded by you on or before the
seventh day of the month next following the month in which the declaration is
furnished by you to the Commissioner of Income-tax concerned, as provided in
rule 29C of the Income-tax Rules, 1962.
(7) No tax should be deducted from
any sum payable in respect of any security owned by a corporation established by
or under a Central Act which under any law for the time being in force is
exempt from income-tax on its income.
(8) Under section 288B, fractions
of one rupee contained in the amount of tax will have to be rounded off to the
nearest rupee by ignoring amounts less than fifty paise and increasing amounts
of fifty paise or more to one rupee. Hence, the amount of tax to be deducted at
source should be rounded off to the nearest rupee in accordance with the
aforesaid provisions of the Act.
ANNEX I - EXTRACT
FROM THE FINANCE ACT, 1985 - SUB-PARAGRAPH I
OF PARAGRAPH A OF PART III OF THE
FIRST SCHEDULE
Paragraph A
Sub-Paragraph I
In the case of every individual or Hindu
undivided family or unregistered firm or other association of persons or body
of individuals, whether incorporated or not, or every artificial juridical
person referred to in sub-clause (vii) of clause (31) of section
2 of the Income-tax Act, not being a case to which Sub-Paragraph II of this
Paragraph or any other paragraph of this Part applies
Rates of
income-tax
(1) |
Where the total income does not exceed
Rs. 18,000 |
Nil ; |
(2) |
Where the total income exceeds Rs.
18,000 but does not exceed Rs. 25,000 |
25 per cent of the amount by which the total income
exceeds Rs. 18,000; |
(3) |
Where the total income exceeds Rs.
25,000 but does not exceed Rs. 50,000 |
Rs. 1,750 plus 30 per cent of the amount by
which the total income exceeds Rs. 25,000; |
(4) |
Where the total income exceeds Rs.
50,000 but does not exceed Rs. 1,00,000 |
Rs. 9,250 plus 40 per cent of the amount by
which the total income exceeds Rs. 50,000; |
(5) |
Where the total income exceeds Rs.
1,00,000 |
Rs. 29,250 plus 50 per cent of the amount by
which the total income exceeds Rs. 1,00,000. |
ANNEX II - DECLARATION
UNDER SECTION 197A
FORM NO. 15F
[See rule
29C(1)]
Declaration under
section 197(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, to be made
by an individual claiming receipt of Interest on securities
without deduction of tax
I, ..................... son/daughter/wife
of ................... resident of @......................... do hereby declare
1. that the securities, particulars of which are given below, stand in my
name and are beneficially owned by me, and the interest therefrom
is not includible in the total income of any other person under sections 60 to
64 of the Income-tax Act, 1961:
Description of securities |
Number of securities |
Dates of securities |
Amount of securities
|
Date(s) on which the securities were
acquired by the declarant |
|
|
|
|
|
2. that my
present occupation is.........................;
3. that my estimated total income including the interest on securities
referred to in Paragraph 1 above, computed in accordance with the provisions of
the Income-tax Act, 1961, for the previous year ending on ................,
relevant to the assessment year 19...... 19....., will be less than the minimum
liable to income-tax;
4. *that I have not been assessed to income-tax at any time in the past
but I fall within the jurisdiction of the Commissioner of
Income-tax.......................
or
that I was last assessed to income-tax for
assessment year 19.....19...... by the Income-tax
Officer......................... Circle/Ward/District and the permanent account
number allotted to me is.............................;
5. that I am resident in
|
........................................................ |
|
Signature of
the declarant |
VERIFICATION
I, ............, do hereby declare that to
the best of my knowledge and belief what is stated above is correct, complete
and is truly stated.
Verified today,
the...........................................day of
.......................19.......
Place :
................ |
|
................................................ |
|
|
Signature of declarant |
Notes :
1. @ Give complete postal address.
2. The Declaration should be furnished in
duplicate.
3. *delete whichever is not applicable.
4. Before signing the verification, the declarant should satisfy himself that the information
furnished in the declaration is true, correct and complete in all respects. Any
person making a false statement in the declaration shall be liable to
prosecution under section 277 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, and on conviction be
punishable
(i) in
a case where tax sought to be evaded exceeds one lakh rupees, with rigorous
imprisonment which shall not be less than six months but which may extend to
seven years and with fine;
(ii) in
any other case, with rigorous imprisonment which shall not be less than the
three months but which may extend to three years and with fine.
[FOR USE BY THE
PERSON TO WHOM THE DECLARATION IS FURNISHED]
1. Name and address of the person responsible for paying
the interest on securities mentioned in Paragraph 1 of the declaration.
2. Date on which the declaration was furnished by the declarant.
3. Period for which interest is paid.
4. Amount of interest.
5. Date on which interest is paid.
Forwarded to the Commissioner of
Income-tax................
|
|
............................................................................. |
Place ....................... |
|
Signature of
the person responsible |
Date ...................... |
|
for paying
interest on securities |
Circular : No. 428 [F. No. 275/30/85-IT(B)], dated 8-8-1985.
FINANCIAL YEAR 1985-86
1743. Instructions for deduction of tax at source from
winnings from lottery or crossword puzzle during financial year 1985-86 at the
rates specified in Part II of First Schedule to Finance Act, 1985
1. I am directed to invite a reference to the Boards Circular No. 390 [F.
No. 275/15/84-IT(B)], dated 8-8-1984, wherein you were requested to issue
necessary instructions for making deduction of income-tax at source from the
winnings from lottery or crossword puzzles at the rates given in Part II of the
First Schedule to the Finance Act, 1984.
2. You are aware that under section 194B, every person responsible for
paying to any person, whether resident or non-resident, any income by way of
winnings from any lottery or crossword puzzle in any amount exceeding
Rs. 1,000 is required to deduct income-tax thereon at the rates specified
in this behalf in the Finance Act of the relevant year. The rates of deduction
of income-tax, at source for the financial year 1985-86 specified in Part II of
the First Schedule to the Finance Act, 1985, are as follows :
Rates of income-tax
including surcharge
(i) In the
case of a person other than a company : |
|
(a) where
the person is resident in |
|
(i) on
income by way of winnings from lotteries |
IT 25 per cent SC Nil; |
(ii) on income
by way of winnings from crossword puzzles |
IT 30 per cent SC Nil; |
(b) where
the person is not resident in |
30 per cent of the amount of income; |
|
or |
|
income-tax in respect of income at the rates
prescribed in Sub-Paragraph I of Paragraph A of Part III of the First
Schedule to the Finance Act, 1985 [Annex I], if the winnings from
lottery or crossword puzzles had been the total income, |
|
whichever is higher. |
(ii) In the
case of a company : |
|
(a) where
the company is a domestic company |
22.575 per cent (IT 21.5 per cent + SC
1.075 per cent); |
(b) where
the company is not a domestic company |
68.25 per cent (IT 65 per cent + SC 3.25
per cent). |
3. The substance of the main provisions in the law insofar as they relate
to deduction of income-tax at source from winnings from lotteries and crossword
puzzles, is given hereunder :
(1) No
tax will be deducted at source where the income by way of winnings from lottery
or crossword puzzle is Rs. 1,000 or less.
(2) Where
a prize is given partly in cash and partly in kind, income-tax will be
deductible from each prize with reference to the aggregate amount of the cash
prize and the value of the prize in kind. Where, however, the prize is given
only in kind, no income-tax will be required to be deducted.
(3) Where
the lottery or crossword puzzle is paid in instalments,
the deduction will be made at the time of actual payment of each instalment.
(4) Income-tax
will be deductible from the amount of the prize money paid to the owner of the
lucky ticket with reference to the amount paid to him. Income-tax is not
deductible from the income by way of bonus or commission paid to the lottery
agents or sellers of lottery tickets on sale made by them.
(5) In
view of section 288B, the amount of tax to be deducted at source should be
rounded off to the nearest rupee by ignoring amounts less than fifty paise and
increasing amounts of fifty paise or more to one rupee.
(6) Tax
deducted on behalf of Government is required to be paid to the credit of the
Central Government on the same day. In other cases, the tax deducted should be
paid to the credit of the Central Government within one week from the date of
deduction. The challans for paying income-tax in the
Government account may be obtained, from the Income-tax Officer concerned. The
income-tax and surcharge should be shown separately in the challans
and/or while sending Account head details to the Accountants General/Zonal
Accounts Officers.
(7) The
relevant forms in relation to the provisions for deduction of income-tax at
source from winnings from lotteries and crossword puzzle prizes are prescribed
by the Income-tax Rules, 1962. In this connection, the following instructions
may please be noted :
(a) In
the case of any person, other than a company, it is open to the recipient of
the prize to make an application in Form No. 13B to the Income-tax Officer
concerned and obtain from him a certificate authorising the payer to deduct tax
at such lower rates or deduct no tax as may be appropriate to his case. Such a
certificate will be valid for the period specified thereon unless it is
cancelled by the Income-tax Officer earlier.
(b) The
person responsible for making any payment by way of winnings from lotteries or
crossword puzzles should issue a certificate in Form No. 19B showing therein
the amount of the prize, the amount of tax deducted at source and the date of
payment in the Government account.
(c) The
person making deduction of tax in accordance with section 194B from income by
way of winnings from lotteries or crossword puzzles should send to the
Income-tax Officer having jurisdiction to assess him the statement in Form No.
26B quarterly on July 15, October 15, January 15, and April 15, in respect of
deductions made by him during the immediately preceding quarter.
Annex.
- Extract from the Finance Act, 1985 - Sub-paragraph I of
paragraph A of Part III of the First Schedule
Paragraph A
Sub-Paragraph I
In the case of every individual or Hindu
undivided family or unregistered firm or other association of persons or body
of individuals, whether incorporated or not, or every artificial juridical
person referred to in sub-clause (vii) of clause (31) of section
2 of the Income-tax Act, not being a case to which Sub-Paragraph II of this
Paragraph or any other paragraph of this Part applies :
Rates of
income-tax
(1) |
where the total income does not exceed
Rs. 18,000 |
Nil; |
(2) |
where the total income exceeds Rs.
18,000 but does not exceed Rs. 25,000 |
25 per cent of the amount by which the
total income exceeds Rs. 18,000; |
(3) |
where the total income exceeds Rs.
25,000 but does not exceed Rs. 50,000 |
Rs. 1,750 plus 30 per cent of the
amount by which the total income exceeds Rs. 25,000; |
(4) |
where the total income exceeds Rs.
50,000 but does not exceed Rs. 1,00,000 |
Rs. 9,250 plus 40 per cent of the
amount by which the total income exceeds Rs. 50,000; |
(5) |
where the total income exceeds Rs.
1,00,000 |
Rs. 29,250 plus 50 per cent of
the amount by which the total income exceeds Rs. 1,00,000. |
Circular :
No. 429 [F.No. 275/35/85-IT(B)], dated
8-8-1985.
Financial year
1985-86
1682. Instruction for deduction of tax at source from
salary during the financial year 1985-86 at the rates specified in Part III of
First Schedule to Finance Act, 1985
1. I am directed to invite a reference to this Ministrys
Circular No. 388 [F.No. 275/13/84-IT(B)], dated
16-7-1984 and Circular No. 407 [F.No.
275/13/84-IT(B)], dated 1-2-1985 wherein the rates of income-tax deduction
during the financial year 1984-85 from the payment of income-tax chargeable
under the head Salaries under section 192 were intimated.
2. Sub-section (1) of the said section provides that the person
responsible for paying any income chargeable under the head Salaries shall, at
the time of making payment deduct income-tax on the amount payable at the
average rate of income-tax computed on the basis of the rates in force for the
financial year in which the payment is made, on the estimated income of the
assessee for that financial year. The provisions of sub-section (3) are
intended for making adjustments of excess or shortfalls of inadvertent nature
and/or due to unforeseen circumstances. Thus, the aggregate tax calculated on
the estimated income divided by twelve and rounded off to the nearest rupee is
required to be deducted from the monthly salary.
3. In the Finance Act, 1985, some modifications have been made. An
extract of Sub-Paragraph I of Paragraph A of Part III of the First Schedule is
at Annex 1.
4. The substance of the main provisions of law insofar as they relate to
income chargeable under the head Salaries on which tax is to be deducted at
source during the financial year 1985-86 is given hereunder :
(1) No tax will be deductible at
source in any case unless the estimated salary income for the financial year
exceeds Rs. 18,000. Some typical examples of calculation are at Annex II.
(2) The value of perquisites by way
of free or concessional residential accommodation, or
motor cars provided by employers to their employees, shall be determined under
rule 3 of the Income-tax Rules, 1962. Further the value of other benefits or
amenities provided free of cost or at concessional
rates to the employees, like supply of gas, electric energy, water for
household consumption, educational facilities, etc., should also be taken into
account, for the purpose of computing the estimated salary income of the
employees during the current financial year (Example II at Annex II
illustrates computation of some such perquisites). As regards colliery
allowance it is to be noted that only the excess over Rs. 100 per month or 50
per cent of the actual colliery allowance paid by Coal India Ltd., whichever is
more, is to be treated as perquisite and the balance amount on account of the
payment of said allowance may be allowed to be deducted while computing income
under the head Salaries for purpose of deduction of tax at source.
(3) Exemption in computing total
income :
(a) Clause (10) of section
10 provides exemption of death-cum-retirement gratuity from inclusion in
computing total income. The Government have issued a Notification bearing No.
537(E), dated 1-7-1985 raising the limit of Rs. 36,000 mentioned in sub-clause
(iii) of clause (10) of section 10 to Rs. 50,000 for all the
three purposes for which the said limit has been mentioned in the provisions of
the said clause.
(b) Sub-clause (1) of clause
(10AA) of section 10 provides for exemption of any payment received by
an employee as cash equivalent of the leave salary in respect of the period of
earned leave at his credit at the time of his retirement on superannuation or
otherwise; and
(c) In the case of any employee
other than an employee of the Central or State Government any payment of the
nature referred to in sub-clause (i) of clause (10AA) of section
10 is to be excluded in computing the total income subject to the provisions of
sub-clause (ii) of the said clause (10AA).
(4) The amount re-paid to an
employee from the Additional Dearness Allowance Deposit Account under the
provisions of Additional Emoluments (Compulsory Deposit) Act, 1974, shall be
liable to be included in his total income of the previous year in which it is
re-paid as already explained in the Ministrys
Circular No. 182 [F.No. 275/12/75-IT(J)], dated
28-10-1975]. The amount repaid will include an element of interest also. While
the repayment of principal sum will be regarded as salary paid during the
relevant financial year and assessed to tax accordingly, the interest element
qualifies for deduction in accordance with section 80L of the Income-tax Act,
1961.
(5) Under section 10(10B),
as amended by section 4 of the Finance Act, 1985 with effect from 1-4-1986, any
compensation received by a workman under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (14
of 1947) or under any other Act or Rule, orders or notifications issued thereunder or under any standing orders or under any award,
contract of service or otherwise at the time of retrenchment, is exempt from
the payment of income-tax; the amount exempt under these provisions shall not
exceed :
(i) an
amount calculated in accordance with the provisions of clause (b) of
section 25F of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947; or
(ii) fifty
thousand rupees, whichever is less. However, these limits shall not apply in
respect of any compensation received by a workman in accordance with any Scheme
which the Central Government may, having regard to the need for extending
special protection to the workmen in the undertaking to which such Scheme
applies and other relevant circumstances, approve in this behalf.
(6) Under section 10(13A)
any special allowance specifically granted to an assessee by his employer to
meet expenditure incurred on payment of rent (by whatever name called) in
respect of residential accommodation occupied by the assessee is exempt from
income-tax to the extent (not exceeding Rs. 400 p.m.) as may be prescribed,
having regard to the area or place in which such accommodation is situated and
other relevant considerations. Rule 2A of the Income-tax Rules, 1962 prescribes
the limits in respect of the amount which is not to be included in the total
income of the assessee for the purpose of section 10(13A). It has to be
noted that only the expenditure actually incurred on payment of rent in respect
of residential accommodation occupied by the assessee subject to the limits
laid down in rule 2A, qualifies for exemption from income-tax. Thus, house rent
allowance granted to an employee who is residing in a house/flat owned by him
is not exempt from income-tax. The disbursing authorities should satisfy
themselves in this regard by insisting on production of evidence of actual
payment of rent before excluding house rent allowance from the total income of
the employee.
(7) (a) Under
section 16 the taxable salary is to be computed after providing standard
deduction. The standard deduction is to be allowed of an amount equal to 25 per
cent of the salary subject to a maximum of Rs. 6,000. For this purpose, the
term Salary will include fees, commission, perquisites or profits in lieu of or
in addition to salary, but will not include any payment received by the
employees which are specifically exempt from tax under clauses (10), (10A),
(10AA), (10B), (11), (12) and (13A) of
section 10. Thus, house rent allowance to the extent exempt under section 10(13A)
of the Act will not be taken into account for the purpose of computing the
amount of the standard deduction. It is to be noted that standard deduction on
the above basis is to be allowed irrespective of whether any expenditure
incidental to employment is actually incurred by the employee or not. This deduction
will be available also to persons drawing pension during the current financial
year at the same rates and subject to the same ceiling as to the employees in
actual service. However, the standard deduction will be limited to Rs. 1,000
only in cases (i) where the employee is provided with any motor car,
motor cycle, scooter or other moped by his employer for use otherwise than
wholly and exclusively in the performance of his duties, or (ii) where
he is allowed the use of any one or more motor cars out of a pool of motor cars
owned or hired by the employer otherwise than wholly and exclusively in the
performance of his duties. The use of any vehicle provided by the employer for
journey by the employee from his residence to his office or other place of work
as also from office or other place of work to his residence shall not be
regarded as use of such vehicles otherwise than wholly and exclusively in the
performance of his duties.
(b) Para
4, Circular No. 407, dated 1-2-1985 read with Circular No. 408, dated 8-2-1985
may be treated as withdrawn in view of section 6(c) of the Finance Act,
1985.
(c) In
respect of salary paid during the financial year 1985-86, the value of any
benefit or amenity granted or provided free of cost or at concessional
rate by an employer to an employee (not being a director of the company or a
person who has substantial interest in the company) is not regarded as a
perquisite received by the employee unless the employees income under the head
Salaries exclusive of the value of any benefits or amenities not provided for
by way of monetary payment exceeds Rs. 24,000. In cases where salary is
received from more than one employer, the aggregate salary from these employers
will have to be taken into account for the purpose.
(8)(a)
Under section 80C while computing the taxable income the disbursing officers
should allow deduction of the whole of the first Rs. 6,000, 50 per cent of the
next Rs. 6,000 and 40 per cent of the balance of the qualifying amount of
payment towards life insurance premium, contributions to provident fund
(including contributions to Public Provident Fund constituted under the Public
Provident Fund Act, 1968), contributions for participation in the Unit-linked
Insurance Plan, 1971 made under section 19(1)(cc) of the Unit Trust of
India Act, 1963, deposits in a 10-year account or 15-year account under the
Post Office Savings Bank (Cumulative Time Deposits) Rules, 1959 and
subscription to the National Savings Certificates (VI Issue) and the National
Savings Certificates (VII Issue). The interest on National Savings Certificates
(VI Issue) is deemed to be re-invested and therefore the holder thereof is
entitled to the benefits of section 80C.
(b) In
respect of contributions to recognised provident
funds there is another monetary ceiling limit laid down in clause (d) of
sub-section (2) of section 80C, in that the employees own contribution
to his individual account in the fund will not exceed one-fifth of his salary
during the financial year or Rs. 10,000, whichever is less. Salary for this
purpose would include dearness allowance if the terms of the employment so
provide but will exclude all other allowances or perquisites. The expression recognised provident fund has been defined in section 2(38)
to mean a provident fund which has been and continues to be recognised
by the Commissioner in accordance with the Rules contained in Part A of the
Fourth Schedule to the Act and includes a provident fund established under a
Scheme framed under the Employees Provident Funds Act, 1952.
(c) The
additional monetary ceiling of one-fifth of salary or Rs. 10,000, whichever is
less, will not be applicable to the contributions to the provident funds
referred to in sub-clauses (iii) and (iv) of clause (a) of
sub-section (2) of section 80C. Such provident funds are :
(A) Government
Provident Fund and Railways Provident Fund.
(B) Provident
Funds established by such local authorities and institutions as are mentioned
in the Schedule to the Provident Funds Act, 1925 and those notified by the Government
from time to time under section 8(3) of that Act.
(C) Any
provident fund set up by the Central Government and notified by it in the
Official GazettePublic Provident Fund set up under
the Public Fund Act, 1968 is an example of such a fund.
(d) Under
clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 80C where the assessee is a
Hindu undivided family, the deduction is allowable in respect of
(i) any
sum paid in the previous year by the assessee out of its income chargeable to
tax
(1) to
effect or to keep in force an insurance on the life of any member of the
family; or
(2) as
a contribution to any provident fund referred to in sub-clause (iv) of
clause (a) where such contribution is to an account standing in the name
of any member of the family; or
(ii) any
sum deposited in the previous year by the assessee out of its income chargeable
to tax in a ten-year account or a fifteen-year account under the Post Office
Savings Bank (Cumulative Time Deposits) Rules, 1959, as amended from time to
time where such sums are deposited in an account standing in the name of any
member of the family.
(e) The
aggregate of the sums referred to in (a) and (d) above which
qualifies for the purpose of computing the deduction under section 80C shall
not exceed
(i) in
the case of any individual being an author, playwright, artist, musician, actor
or sportsman (including an athlete), sixty thousand rupees;
(ii) in
the case of any other individual or a Hindu undivided family or any such
association of persons or a body of individuals as is referred to in clause (g)
of sub-section (2), forty thousand rupees.
(9) No deduction should be made
from the salary income in respect of any donations for charitable purposes. The
tax relief on such donations as admissible under section 80G will have to be
claimed by the taxpayer separately at the time of finalisation
of the assessment. However, in cases where contributions to the National Defence Fund, Jawaharlal Nehru Memorial Fund, the Prime
Ministers Drought Relief Fund, the National Childrens
Fund or the Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust are made, 50
per cent of such contributions may be deducted in computing the total income of
the employee. Under section 80G of the Act as amended by section 18 of the
Finance Act, 1985 the donation to the Prime Ministers National Relief Fund will
be eligible for hundred per cent deduction which would be effective from
1-4-1986, and would, accordingly, apply in relation to the assessment year
1986-87. Thus, deduction in this respect maybe allowed while computing the
total income for the purpose of deduction of income-tax at source for financial
year 1985-86. Deduction will not be admissible where the aggregate of all
contributions for the year is less than Rs. 250.
(10) Under section 80GG an assessee
is entitled to a deduction in respect of house rent paid by him for his own
residence at the places specified under rule 11B of the Income-tax Rules. Such
deduction is permissible subject to the following conditions :
(a) The
assessee has not been in receipt of any house rent allowance specifically
granted to him which qualifies for exemption under section 10(13A) of
the Act;
(b) He
will be entitled to a deduction in respect of house rent paid by him in excess
of 10 per cent of his total income subject to a ceiling of 15 per cent thereof
or Rs. 400 per month, whichever is less. The total income for working out these
percentages will be computed before making any deductions under section 80GG;
(c) The
assessee does not own :
(i) any
residential accommodation himself or by his spouse or minor child or where such
assessee is a member of a Hindu undivided family, by such family, at the place
where he ordinarily resides or performs duties of his office or carries on his
business or profession; or
(ii) at
any other place, any residential accommodation being accommodation in the
occupation of the assessee, the value of which is to be determined under clause
(i) or, as the case may be, clause (ii) of sub-section (2) of
section 23; and
(d) The
accommodation occupied by him for the purpose of his own residence is situated
in any of the following places, namely :
(i) Agra,
Ahmedabad, Allahabad, Amritsar,
Bangalore, Bhopal, Calcutta, Coimbatore, Delhi, Faridabad, Gwalior (Lashkar), Hyderabad, Indore, Jabalpur, Jaipur, Kanpur, Lucknow, Ludhiana City, Madurai, Nagpur, Patna, Pune (Poona), Srinagar, Surat, Vadodara (Baroda) or Varanasi (Banaras) or the urban
agglomeration of each of such places; and
(ii)
Explanation:
Urban agglomeration, in relation to a place, means the area for the time being
included in the urban agglomeration of such place for the purpose of grant of
house rent allowance by the Central Government to its employees under the
orders issued by it from time to time in this regard.
The disbursing authorities should satisfy themselves
that all the conditions mentioned above are satisfied before such deduction is
allowed by them to the assessees. They should also
satisfy themselves in this regard by insisting on production of evidence of
actual payment of rent.
(11) Section 10(14) of the
Act provides for exemption from income-tax of any special allowance or benefit,
not being in the nature of an entertainment allowance or other perquisite
within the meaning of clause (2) of section 17 specially granted to the
employee to meet the expenses actually incurred wholly, necessarily and
exclusively in the performance of the duties of an office or employment of
profit. In view of this provision, disbursing authorities have been authorised vide
Boards Circular No. 196 [F.No. 275/29/76-ITJ, dated
31-3-1976] not to deduct tax at source from conveyance allowance granted to an
employee to the extent it is exempt under the said section. It has been stated
herein that the employee in receipt of conveyance allowance would have to
furnish the necessary certificate before the disbursing authority in support of
the fact that the conveyance allowance is only a reimbursement of expenses laid
out wholly, necessarily and exclusively in the performance of duties of an
office or employment of profit. The satisfaction of the disbursing authorities
would still be liable for scrutiny by the Income-tax Officer during regular
assessment proceedings before him. The disbursing authority is also required to
endorse a certificate in terms of section 10(14) on the tax deduction
certificate issued under section 203 of the Act. In this connection, attention
is invited to the Explanation to clause (14) of section 10 which
clarifies that any allowance granted to the assessee to meet his personal
expenses at the place where the duties of his office or employment of profit
are ordinarily performed by him or at the place where he ordinarily resides
shall not be regarded for purposes of that clause as a special allowance
granted to meet expenses wholly, necessarily and exclusively incurred in the
performance of such duties. This may be kept in view while deciding whether any
expenditure from the special allowance has been actually incurred, and if so,
the extent to which it has been incurred to meet the expenses wholly,
necessarily and exclusively in the performance of duties of an office or
employment of profit.
(12) Section 80RRA provides that
where the gross total income of an individual who is a citizen of India,
includes any remuneration received by him in foreign currency from any employer
(i.e., a foreign employer or an Indian concern) for any services
rendered by him outside India, 50 per cent of such remuneration will be
deducted in computing the taxable income. It also provides that where the
assessee renders continuous service abroad for more than 36 months, the
remuneration received by him for any period of service after the expiry of the
said 36 months will not qualify for any deduction. In the case of an employee
of Central Government or any State Government or a person who was, immediately
before taking up the service outside
The expression foreign employer has been
defined in Explanation (b) to section 80RRA to mean (i) the
Government of a foreign State; or (ii) a foreign enterprise; or (iii)
any association or body established outside
(i) In
the case of an individual who is in the employment of the Central Government or
any State Government, the fact of his service having been sponsored by the
Central Government.
(ii) In
the case of any other individual being a technician, the fact of the terms and
conditions of his service outside
[It should also be ensured that the
deduction is allowed with reference to the remuneration received in foreign
currency in respect of the period of service outside
(13) Under section 80U: (a)
In computing the total income of an individual, being a resident, who, as at
the end of the previous year,
(i) is
totally blind, or
(ii) is
subject to or suffers from a permanent physical disability (other than
blindness) being a permanent physical disability, specified in the rules made
in this behalf by the Board, and which has the effect of reducing substantially
his capacity to engage in a gainful employment or occupation, there shall be
allowed a deduction of a sum of ten thousand rupees:
Provided that such individual produces before the Income-tax
Officer, in respect of the first assessment year for which deduction is claimed
under this section
(a) in
a case referred to in clause (i), a certificate as to his total
blindness from a registered medical practitioner being an oculist; and
(b) in
a case referred to in clause (ii), a certificate as to the permanent physical
disability referred to in the said clause from a registered medical
practitioner.
(b) The Board has by Notification
No. SO 529(E), dated 17-7-1985 specified the physical disabilities which will be
reckoned as permanent physical disabilities for purposes of deduction under
this section. According to the said notification a permanent physical
disability shall be regarded as a permanent physical disability for purposes of
clause (ii) of sub-section (1) of section 80U, if it falls in any one of
the categories specified below, namely :
(i) Permanent
physical disability of more than 50 per cent in one limb.
(ii) Permanent
physical disability of more than 60 per cent in two or more limbs.
(iii) Permanent
deafness with hearing impairment of 71 decibels and above.
(iv) Permanent
and total loss of voice.
The deduction of Rs. 10,000 from the total
income is allowed by the employer subject to the production of a certificate
from the Income-tax Officer in favour of the employer as laid down in this Ministrys Circular No. 272, dated 27-5-1980. The
certificate once issued will continue to be in force till it is withdrawn by
the Income-tax Officer.
(14) The total income computed in
accordance with the provisions of the Act should be rounded off to the nearest
multiple of ten rupees by ignoring the fraction which is less than five rupees
and increasing the fraction which amounts to five rupees or more to ten rupees.
The net amount of tax deductible should be similarly rounded off to the nearest
rupee.
(15) Section 201 providers :
(1) If any such person and in the cases referred to in
section 194 the principal officer or the company of which he is the principal
officer does not deduct or after deducting fails to pay the tax as required by
or under this Act, he or it shall, without prejudice to any other consequences
which he or it may incur, be deemed to be an assessee in default in respect of
the tax :
Provided
that no penalty shall be charged under section 221 from such person, principal
officer or company unless the Income-tax Officer is satisfied that such person
or principal officer or company, as the case may be, has without good and
sufficient reasons failed to deduct and pay the tax.
(1A) Without prejudice to the provisions of
sub-section (1), if any such person, principal officer or company as is
referred to in that sub-section does not deduct or after deducting fails to pay
the tax as required by or under this Act, he or it shall be liable to pay
simple interest at fifteen per cent per annum on the amount of such tax from
the date on which such tax was deductible to the date on which such tax is
actually paid.
(2) Where the tax has not been paid as aforesaid after
it is deducted the amount of tax together with the amount of simple interest
thereon referred to in sub-section (1A) shall be a charge upon all the assets
of a person or the company, as the case may be, referred to in sub-section (1).
(16) Attention is also invited to
section 276B, where it is provided that if a person without reasonable cause or
excuse fails to deduct or after deducting fails to pay the tax as required
under the provisions of Chapter XVII-B of the Income-tax Act, 1961, he shall be
punishable :
(i) in
a case where the amount of tax which he has failed to deduct or pay exceeds one
hundred thousand rupees, with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not
be less than six months but which may extend to seven years and with fine; and
(ii) in
any other case, with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less
than three months but which may extend to three years and with fine.
5. While making the payment of tax deducted at source to the credit of
the Central Government it may kindly be ensured that the correct amount of income-tax
and surcharge is recorded in the relevant challan. It
may also be ensured that the right type of challan is
used. The relevant challan for making payment of tax
deducted at source from salaries is No. 9 with Blue Colour
Band. Where the amount of tax deducted at source is credited to the Central
Government through book adjustment, care should be taken to ensure that the
correct amount of income-tax is reflected therein.
6. These instructions are not exhaustive and are issued only with a view
to helping the employers to understand the various relevant provisions.
Wherever, there is a difference of opinion, a reference should always be made
to the provisions of the Income-tax Act and the relevant Finance Act through
which the changes in the tax structure are made.
ANNEX I - EXTRACT
FROM THE FINANCE ACT, 1985 - PART III OFTHE FIRST SCHEDULE
Paragraph A
Sub-Paragraph I
In the case of every individual or Hindu
undivided family, or unregistered firm or other association of persons or body of
individuals, whether incorporated or not, or every artificial juridical person
referred to sub-clause (vii) of clause (31) of section 2 of the
Income-tax Act, not being a case to which Sub-Paragraph II of this Paragraph or
any other Paragraph of this Part applies :
Rates of
income-tax
(1) |
where the total income does not exceed
Rs. 18,000 |
Nil; |
(2) |
where the total income exceeds Rs.
18,000 but does not exceed Rs. 25,000 |
25 per cent of the amount by which the
total income exceeds Rs. 18,000; |
(3) |
where the total income exceeds Rs.
25,000 but does not exceed exceeds Rs. 50,000 |
Rs. 1,750 plus 30 per cent of the
amount by which the total income Rs. 25,000; |
(4) |
where the total income exceeds Rs.
50,000 but does not exceed Rs. 1,00,000 |
Rs. 9,250 plus 40 per cent of the
amount by which the total income exceeds Rs. 50,000. |
(5) |
where the total income exceeds Rs.
1,00,000. |
Rs. 29,250 plus 50 per cent of
the amount Rs. 1,00,000 by which the total income exceeds |
ANNEX II - TYPICAL
EXAMPLES OF INCOME-TAX CALCULATION
Example I
|
|
Rs. |
|
Rs. |
1. |
Total salary income |
|
|
30,000 |
2. |
Contribution to Government provident
fund |
5,000 |
|
|
3. |
Payment towards life insurance premia |
1,000 |
|
|
4. |
Contribution for participation in
Unit-linked Insurance Plan, 1971, made under section 19(1)(cc) of the
Unit Trust of India Act, 1963 |
300 |
|
6,800 |
5. |
Deposits in a 10-year account or 15-year
account under the Post Office Savings Bank (Cumulative Time Deposits) Rules,
1959 |
500 |
|
|
6. |
Total salary income |
|
|
30,000 |
7. |
Deduct: Amount of standard deduction under section 16(i)
@ 25% of the amount subject to a maximum of Rs. 6,000 |
|
|
6,000 |
8. |
Gross total income (6-7) |
|
|
24,000 |
9. |
Deduct: Amount on account of contribution towards GPF, LIP,
Unit-linked Insurance Plan and deposit in 10-year account or 15-year account
under Post Office Savings Bank (Cumulative Time Deposits) Rules, 1959. The
total amount paid Rs. 6,800 |
|
|
6,400 |
10. |
Total income |
|
|
17,600 |
11. |
Total tax payable |
|
|
Nil |
Example II
[Illustrating
calculation of limits under section 80C and valuation of some perquisites in
case of an employee of a private company posted at Bombay]
|
|
Rs. |
1. |
Salary including dearness allowance |
48,000 |
2. |
Bonus |
9,600 |
3. |
Contribution to recognised
provident fund |
11,000 |
4. |
LIP |
10,000 |
5. |
Subscription to National Savings
Certificates (VI & VII Issues) |
10,000 |
6. |
Interest accrued for the first year on
NSC (VI Issue) @ Rs. 12.40 for every Rs. 100 or say Rs. 5,000 |
620 |
7. |
Free gas, electricity, water etc.
(actual bills paid by the company) |
2,400 |
8. |
Furniture at cost (including television set,
radio set, refrigerator, other household appliances and an air-conditioner)
belonging to the company |
40,000 |
9. |
(i) Furnished flat provided to
the employee for which actual rent paid by the company (actual rent assumed
to be equal to the Fair Rental Value) |
42,000 |
|
(ii) Rent recovered from the
employee |
12,000 |
Computation of total income
1. |
Salary |
|
48,000 |
2. |
Bonus |
|
9,600 |
|
|
|
57,600 |
3. |
Valuation of perquisites: |
|
|
|
(a) Furnished flat at concessional rent under section 17(2) read with
clauses (a) and (b) of rule 3 of Income-tax Rules, 1962 Fair
Rental Value (FRV) (assumed to be equal to actual rent Rs. 42,000) 10 per
cent of salary including bonus |
|
5,760 |
|
Add : Excess of (FRV) over 60 per cent of salary
including bonus of Rs. 57,600 (i.e., Rs. 42,000Rs. 34,560) |
7,440 |
|
|
Add: Perquisite of the furniture (10 per cent of cost, i.e., Rs.
40,000) |
4,000 |
|
|
|
17,200 |
|
|
(b) Less : Rent paid by
the employee |
12,000 |
5,200 |
|
|
|
62,800 |
4. |
Free gas, electricity, etc. |
|
2,400 |
|
|
|
65,200 |
5. |
Less : Standard deduction under section 16(i) @
25 per cent subject to maximum of Rs. 6,000 |
|
6,000 |
6. |
Gross total income |
|
59,200 |
7. |
Less: Deduction under section 80C : |
|
|
|
- P.F. paid Rs. 11,000 but restricted to
1/5th of salary Rs. 48,000 (excluding bonus) or Rs. 10,000, whichever is less
|
|
9,600 |
|
- LIP |
|
10,000 |
|
- National Savings Certificates (VI
& VII Issues) and interest accrued on Rs. 5,000 for the first year of NSC
(VI Issue) (Rs. 10,000 + 620) |
|
10,620 |
|
Total of PF, LIP, NSC of Rs. 30,220
(maximum allowable up to Rs. 40,000) |
|
30,220 |
|
- First Rs. 6,000 (100%) |
|
6,000 |
|
-Next Rs. 6,000 (50%) |
|
3,000 |
|
- On balance Rs. 18,220 (40%) |
|
7,228 |
|
|
|
16,288 |
8. |
Total income (67) (Rs. 59,200Rs. 16,288) |
|
42,912 |
|
|
|
42,910 |
9. |
Tax payable thereon (Rs. 1,750 + 30% of
excess over Rs. 25,000, i.e., on Rs. 17,910) |
|
7,123 |
[Rate at which monthly deduction from salary is
required to be made works out to Rs. 594]
Notes :
1. In the case of a Government servant, the value of perquisites of
unfurnished accommodation provided free is determined in accordance with the
rules framed by the Government for allotment of residence to its employees. For
determining the perquisite value of free furniture, it is taken, as in other
cases, at 10 per cent per annum of the original cost of the furniture, or if it
is hired from a third party, the actual hire charges payable.
2. Where unfurnished accommodation is provided to its employee by the Reserve
Bank of India or any other public sector body specified in sub-clause (2)
of clause (a) of rule 3 of the Income-tax Rules, say, a nationalised bank, State Trading Corporation, etc., it is
taken as 10 per cent of the salary due to the employee and where the
accommodation is furnished as in other cases, an additional 10 per cent of the
original cost of furniture, or if it is hired from a third party, the actual
hire charges payable therefor.
3. In the example given above, the actual rent has been assumed to be
equal to the fair rental value. Fair rental value can, however, be different
from the actual rent. It is defined in Explanation 2, below clause (a)
of rule 3, to mean in the case of an accommodation which is unfurnished, the
rent which a similar accommodation would realise in
the same locality or the municipal valuation in respect of the accommodation,
whichever is higher.
4. In case the accommodation is situated in
Example III
[Illustrating
limits of deduction under section 80C]
|
|
Rs. |
|
Rs. |
1. |
Total salary income (including Rs. 2,400
as conveyance allowance @ Rs. 200 p.m. received from the employer) |
|
|
36,000 |
2. |
Contribution to recognised
provident fund |
9,500 |
|
|
3. |
Payment to life insurance premia |
1,000 |
|
|
4. |
Contribution for participation in
Unit-linked Insurance Plan, 1971 made under section 19(1)(cc) of the
Unit Trust of India Act, 1963 |
1,500 |
|
|
5. |
Deposit in a 10-year account or 15-year account
under the Post Office Savings Bank (Cumulative Time Deposits) Rules, 1959 |
1,000 |
|
|
6. |
Total salary income |
|
|
36,000 |
7. |
Deduct : Amount of standard deduction under section 16(i)
@ 25 per cent of the amount subject to maximum of Rs. 6,000 |
|
|
6,000 |
8. |
Gross total income (67) |
|
|
30,000 |
9. |
Deduction under section 80C : |
|
|
|
|
Contribution of Rs. 9,500 to PF under
section 80C(2)(d) restricted to 1/5th of salary of Rs. 36,000 or |
|
|
|
|
Rs. 10,000, whichever is less, i.e., |
7,200 |
|
|
|
- Life Insurance Premia |
1,000 |
|
|
|
- Contribution to participation in Unit-linked
Insurance Plan, 1971 made under section 19(1)(cc) of the Unit Trust of
India Act, 1963 |
1,500 |
|
|
|
- Deposit in a 10-year account or
15-year account under the Post Office Savings Bank (Cumulative Time Deposits)
Rules, 1959 |
1,000 |
|
|
|
Deduction admissible on Rs. 10,700 |
|
|
|
|
- on the first Rs. 6,000 (100%) |
6,000 |
|
|
|
- on the balance Rs. 4,700 @ 50% |
2,350 |
|
8,350 |
10. |
Total income (89) |
|
|
21,650 |
11. |
Income-tax payable at Rs. 21,650 (Rs.
21,65018,000 = Rs. 3650 @ 25%) |
|
|
912.50 |
12. |
Rounded off under section 288B |
|
|
913 |
|
[Rate at which monthly deduction is
required to be made works out to Rs. 76] |
|
|
|
Example IV
[Illustrating
calculation of house rent allowance under section 10(13A) in respect of
residential accommodation situated at
|
|
Rs. |
1. |
Salary (excluding allowances and
perquisites) |
40,000 |
2. |
House rent allowance received |
8,400 |
3. |
Actual rent paid |
11,400 |
4. |
Contribution to recognised
provident fund |
6,000 |
5. |
LIP |
3,000 |
6. |
Deposits in a 10-year account under the Post
Office Savings Bank (Cumulative Time Deposits) Rules, 1959 |
1,000 |
Computation of
total income
1. |
Salary |
|
|
40,000 |
2. |
House rent allowance received |
|
|
8,400 |
|
|
|
|
48,400 |
3. |
Less:
Allowance u/s 10(13A) |
|
|
|
|
Actual rent paid |
11,400 |
|
|
|
Less: 10% of salary |
4,000 |
|
|
|
|
7,400 |
|
|
|
20 per cent of salary (accommodation
being situated at |
8,000 |
|
|
|
Maximum allowable @ Rs. 400 p.m. |
4,800 |
|
4,800 |
|
|
|
|
43,600 |
4. |
Less : Standard deduction under section 16(i) @
25% subject to the maximum of Rs. 6,000 |
|
|
6,000 |
5. |
Gross total income |
|
|
37,600 |
6. |
Less : Deduction under section 80C : |
|
|
|
|
Total PF, LIP and CTD Rs. 10,000. These
contributions being within the prescribed admissible limits, the deduction is
admissible on Rs. 10,000 |
|
|
|
|
- First Rs. 6,000 (100%) |
6,000 |
|
|
|
- On balance Rs. 4,000 (50%) |
2,000 |
|
|
|
|
8,000 |
|
|
|
|
|
|
8,000 |
7. |
Total income |
|
|
29,600 |
8. |
Tax payable thereon Rs. 1,750 + 30% of
Rs. 4,600 (Rs. 29,600Rs. 25,000) |
|
|
3,130 |
|
[Rate at which monthly deduction is required
to be made works out to Rs. 261.] |
|
|
|
Circular : No.
430
SECTION 84 l
PARTICULARS OF DECEASED PERSONS TO BE
FURNISHED TO CONTROLLER
1555.
Whether transfer of shares referred to in sub-section (1) includes transmission
of shares by operation of law
1.
Under section 84(2)1,
an Indian company is prohibited from registering any transfer of shares
standing in the name of a deceased member of the company unless the transferee
has acquired the shares for valuable consideration or a certificate from the
Controller of Estate Duty is produced before the company that estate duty in
respect of the shares has been paid or will be paid or none is due. It appears that in view
of the provisions of section 84(2), many Indian companies insist on the
production of estate duty clearance certificates before allowing mutation of
the shares in the names of the heirs or successors of the deceased, who are
thereby put to great inconvenience.
2. In the Boards view the transfer
of shares referred to in section 84(2) does not include transmission of shares
by operation of law, such as occurs when the shares devolve on the legal
heirs of a deceased member of a company or on the survivor or survivors of two
or more joint shareholders. The provisions of section 84(2) are not,
therefore, considered to be applicable to cases where the heirs or the
survivors of two or more joint shareholders apply for registration in their
names of the shares held by the deceased.
3. The Government of
Circular
: No.
7-D, dated 23-6-1960.
ANNEX
- PRESS NOTE, DATED 21-1-1960 REFERRED TO IN CLARIFICATION
The attention of the
Government of India has been drawn to the insistence by many Indian companies
on the production of estate duty clearance certificate under the provisions of
section 84(2) before allowing mutation of shares held by the deceased members
in the names of their heirs and successors. The Government, therefore, wish to
clarify that in their view the transfer of shares referred to in section
84(2) does not include transmission of shares by operation of law, such as
occurs when the shares devolve on the legal heirs of a deceased member or on
the survivor or survivors of two or more joint shareholders. Therefore, the
provisions of section 84(2) are not considered to be applicable to cases where
the heirs or the survivor or survivors of two or more joint shareholders apply
for registration in their names of the shares held by the deceased. In view of
this clarification, it is hoped that Indian companies will not in future insist
on the production of estate duty clearance certificate in such cases.
Circular : No. 431 [F. No. 174/43/82-IT (A-II)], dated
12-9-1985.
624. Relief in case of encashment of
leave salary by an employee while in service - Whether admissible
1. Section 89(1) provides for relief to an assessee when
salary, etc., is paid in arrears or in advance or if he receives in one
financial year salary for more than 12 months or a payment which under the
provisions of clause (3) of section 17 is a profit in lieu of salary and
therefore, his income is assessed at a rate higher than at which it would have
otherwise been assessed. This relief is granted by the Income-tax Officer on an
application made to him in this behalf.
2. The question of admissibility of relief under section 89(1) in respect of amounts received on encashment of leave salary while in service was considered by the Board. The Board are advised that relief under section 89(1) read with rule 21A of the Income-tax Rules would be admissible in respect of encashment of leave salary by an employee when in service. The encashment of leave salary on retirement whether on superannuation or otherwise has already been exempted, by insertion of clause (10AA) in section 10, by the Finance Act, 1982 with effect from 1-4-1978.
FINANCE ACT, 1985
Circular : No.
433 [F.No. 275/30/82-IT(B)], dated 25-9-1985.
1110. Tax deduction at source from payments to
contractors and sub-contractors in bidi manufacturing
industry - Whether munshis are contractors
CLARIFICATION 1
1. Under section 194C, a liability is cast on any person responsible for
paying any sum to any resident for carrying out any work (including supply of labour for carrying out any work) in pursuance of a
contract between him and
(a) the
Central Government or any State Government; or
(b) any
local authority; or
(c) any
corporation established by or under a Central, State or Provincial Act ; or
(d) any
company ; or
(e) any
co-operative society, or
to deduct an amount equal to two per cent of
such sum as income-tax on income comprised therein.
2. In the bidi manufacturing industry,
generally there are three parties, the manufacturer, the munshis
and the workers. The manufacturer provides the raw material, i.e.,
leaves, tobacco, thread, etc., to the munshis who
distribute the same to the workers who work at home. At regular intervals, the munshis collect the bidies
prepared by the workers and hand over the same to the manufacturer. For this
work, the manufacturer pays to the munshis, who in turn,
make the payment to the workers. The workers as well as munshis
get their payments at the rates agreed to.
3. The Board have had occasion to examine the question whether a munshi engaged by the bidi
manufacturer is a contractor or an agent and whether the provisions of section
194C would apply to the payments made to him. The Board are advised that in
view of the position that the definition of the expression contractor in the Bidi and Cigar Workers (Condition of Employment) Act, 1966,
includes sub-contractor, agent, munshi, thekedar or sattedar, the
provisions of section 194C would apply in respect of payments made to munshis. It may be clarified that the provisions of section
194C are wide enough to cover oral contracts also. By the very nature of
the functions performed by the munshis, there is
an implied contract between the manufacturer and the munshis
and consequently the munshis are contractors even
though there is no written contract or agreement. As such, the provisions of
section 194C would apply in respect of payments made to them.
CLARIFICATION 2
1. Under File No. 275/30/82-IT(B), dated 25-9-1985, a Circular No. 433 [Clarification
1] was issued clarifying that the provisions of section 194C would apply in
respect of payments made to munshis and that would
apply to payments under oral contracts also. The payments to munshis which would be hit by the provisions of section
194C covered not only the payments to them for raw material but also the
payments to the workers.
2. Board have received representations that many of the workers to whom
such payments are made are entitled to the benefits of Employees Provident
Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952. Boards attention has also been
drawn to the judgment of the Supreme Court dated 25th September, 1985, in the
Writ Petitions Nos. 3605 to 3609 of 1978 and others in the case of P.M.
Patel & Sons v. Union of India [1985] 67 FJR 457. In the
judgment in para 3, the Supreme Court has dealt with
three kinds of bidi workers :
(a) directly
employed by the manufacturers;
(b) employed
through the medium of agency such as munshis but the
workers bring bidi to the factory for quality check
and for getting their payments;
(c) the
workers are engaged by the munshis and the munshis ensure the quality and make payments.
It is held that in the types covered by category (b) above, the bidi workers are employees entitled to the benefits of
provident fund, etc.
3. In view of the above judgment, it is now further clarified that the
deductions under section 194C to be made from the payments to munshis need not include payments to such home workers as
fall in category (b) above.
Circular : No.
487 [F.No. 275/34/86-IT(B)], dated 8-6-1987.
ESTATE
DUTY (AMENDMENT) ACT, 1985 - CIRCULAR NO. 434,
DATED 7-10-1985
Section 5 l Levy of Estate duty
1513.
Adopting States subsequently added in Schedule I - Notification under
sub-section (2)
State |
Date of passing
the adopting resolution |
Notification |
|
No. |
Date |
||
1. |
18-3-1954 |
SRO 1138 |
7-4-1954 |
2. |
15-3-1954 |
SRO 1138 |
7-4-1954 |
3. Travancore-Cochin
|
19-3-1955 |
SRO 904 |
22-4-1955 |
4. |
2-4-1955 |
SRO 1227 |
6-6-1955 |
5. Andhra Pradesh |
7-7-1955 |
SRO 1877 |
22-8-1955 |
6. |
18-10-1955 |
SRO 3660 |
9-12-1955 |
7. |
10-4-1956 |
SRO 966 |
20-4-1956 |
Circular: No. 439 [F. No. 225/86/85-IT(A-II)],
dated 15-11-1985.
Effect
of higher returns for the assessment year 1986-87 in respect of wealth-tax
assessments - The Finance Act, 1985
has rationalised the rates of personal income-tax and corporate tax and has also liberalised the provisions of the Wealth-tax Act
considerably. Taxpayers liable to wealth-tax should avail of this opportunity
to come forward and file returns of wealth showing their true net wealth
irrespective of what they might have done earlier. They need not have any
apprehension that they will be subject to penalty or prosecution so long as
they come forward suo motu
before detection by the department. Similarly, where for earlier years
there has been any suppression of assets or undervaluation of assets for the
purposes of wealth-tax the taxpayers would be well advised to come forward
and disclose such undervaluation or suppression now to the Commissioner
whether the wealth-tax assessments for those years are pending or completed.
They will, of course, have to pay wealth-tax on those assets at the
rates applicable to those years, but will not be subject to any penalty or
prosecution. Taxpayers would appreciate that this liberal attitude on the
part of the Government should elicit response from the wealth-tax payers within
a reasonable time and cannot be expected to continue for all time to come. Such
immunity from penalty and prosecution will be available only to such persons
who come forward and show their true wealth and pay tax thereon by March 1986.
1512.
Appointment of estate duty valuers for different
categories of assets and scale of charges for their remuneration - Notification
issued under sub-section (3)
1. In supersession
of all the previous notices issued by this Ministry regarding appointment of valuers under section 4(3) of the Estate Duty Act, 1953, it
is notified for general information that the Central Government proposes to
appoint persons as valuers under section 4(3) of the
Estate Duty Act, 1953, for different categories of assets and to fix a scale of
charges for their remuneration.
2. Persons desiring to be
appointed as approved valuers must satisfy the
conditions mentioned in Annex I to this notice and should apply for
appointment in the form prescribed in Annex II.
3. No person shall qualify
for appointment as an approved valuer, other than as
a Valuer of Works of Art, if he is employed under
Government or any other employer.
4. No person shall qualify
for appointment as an approved valuer, if
(a) he
has been dismissed or removed from Government service ; or
(b) he
has been convicted of an offence connected with any proceedings under the
Income-tax Act, 1961 (43 of 1961) or the Wealth-tax Act, 1957 (27 of 1957) or
the Gift-tax Act, 1958 (18 of 1958) or a penalty has been imposed on him under
clause (iii) of sub-section (1) of section 271, or clause (i) of
section 273 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 or under clause (iii) of
sub-section (1) of section 18 of the Wealth-tax Act, 1957 or under clause (iii)
of sub-section (1) of section 17 of the Gift-tax Act, 1958 ; or
(c) he
is an undischarged insolvent ; or
(d) he
has been convicted of any offence and sentenced to a term of imprisonment or
has been found guilty of misconduct in his professional capacity which, in the
opinion of the Central Government, renders him unfit to be registered as a valuer.
The
requirement laid down in Annex I that the applicant should have, for a
period of not less than five years,
(i) rendered
service in any capacity, or
(ii) taught
any subject, or
(iii) practised any profession, or
(iv) gained
experience in any other capacity or field, as specified therein,
shall
be deemed to have been fulfilled if the period for which the applicant has rendered
such service, taught such subject, practised such
profession or otherwise gained experience in such other capacity or field,
taken either singly or collectively, is not less than five years and the
Central Government is of opinion that the applicant has acquired sufficient
experience in the valuation of the class of assets of which he seeks to be
approved as a valuer.
5. Scale of fees to be
charged by the approved valuer : (1) Subject to
the provisions of items (2) and (3) below the fees to be charged
by an approved valuer for valuation of any asset
shall not exceed the amount calculated at the following rates, namely :
- on the first Rs. 50,000 of the asset as valued
: 1/2 per cent of the value ;
- on the next Rs. 1 lakh of the asset as valued
: 1/4 per cent of the value ; and
- on the balance of the asset as valued : 1/8
per cent of the value.
(2)
Where two or more assets are required to be valued by an approved valuer at the instance of an assessee, all such assets
shall be deemed to constitute a single asset for the purposes of calculating
the fees payable to such approved valuer.
(3)
Where the amount of fees calculated in accordance with items (1) and (2)
is less than Rs. 50, the approved valuer may charge
Rs. 50 as his fees.
Notification
: F.
No. 300/355/74-ED, dated 1-8-1975.
ANNEX
I - CONDITIONS TO BE SATISFIED
1. A valuer
of immovable property (other than agricultural lands, plantations, forests,
mines and quarries) shall have the following qualifications, namely :
(i) he
must either be a graduate in civil engineering, architecture or town planning
of a recognised university or possess a qualification
recognised as sufficient qualification for the
purposes of recruitment to superior posts and services under the Central
Government ; or
(ii)
(A) he must be a person formerly
employed,
(a) in
a post under Government as a gazetted officer ; or
(b) in
a post under any other employer carrying a remuneration of not less than Rs.
1,000 per month,
and in either case must have retired or
resigned from such employment after having rendered service for not less than
five years as a valuer, architect, or town planner,
or in the field of construction of buildings, designing of structures or
development of land ; or
(c) as
a professor, reader or lecturer in a university, college or any other
institution preparing students for a degree in civil engineering, architecture
or town planning, or for an equivalent qualification referred to in clause (i),
and must have retired or resigned from such employment after having taught for
not less than five years any of the subjects of valuation, quantity surveying,
building construction, architecture, or town planning; or
(B) he
must have been in practice as a consulting engineer, surveyor, or architect for
a period of not less than five years and must have, in the opinion of the
Central Government, acquired sufficient experience in any of the following
fields :
(a) valuation
of buildings and urban lands;
(b) quantity
surveying in building construction;
(c) architectural
or structural designing of buildings or town planning; or
(d) construction
of buildings or development of land.
2. A valuer
of agricultural lands [other than plantations] referred to in sub-rule (3)
shall have the following qualifications, namely :
(i) he
must be graduate in agricultural science of a recognised
university and must have worked as a farm valuer for
a period of not less than five years; or
(ii) he
must be a person formerly employed in a post under Government as a Collector,
Deputy Collector, Settlement Officer, Land Valuation Officer, Superintendent of
Land Records, Agricultural Officer, Registrar under the Registration Act, 1908
(16 of 1908), or any other officer of equivalent rank performing similar
functions and must have retired or resigned from such employment after having
rendered service in any one or more of the posts aforesaid for an aggregate
period of not less than five years.
3. A valuer
of coffee plantation, tea plantation, rubber plantation or, as the case may be,
cardamom plantation shall have the following qualifications, namely :
(i) he
must have, for a period of not less than five years, owned or acted as manager
of a coffee, tea, rubber, or as the case may be, cardamom plantation having an
area under plantation of not less than four hectares in the case of a cardamom
plantation or forty hectares in the case of any other plantation; or
(ii) he
must be a person formerly employed in a post under Government as a Collector, Deputy
Collector, Settlement Officer, Land Valuation Officer, Superintendent of Land
Records, Agricultural Officer, Registrar under the Registration Act, 1908 (16
of 1908) or any other officer of equivalent rank performing similar functions
and must have retired or resigned from such employment after having rendered
service in any one or more of the posts aforesaid for an aggregate period of
not less than five years, out of which not less than three years must have been
in areas wherein coffee, tea, rubber or as the case may be, cardamom, is
extensively grown.
4. A valuer
of forests must be a person formerly employed in a post under Government and
must have retired or resigned from such employment after having rendered
service for not less than five years in a gazetted
post requiring specialised knowledge in forestry.
5. A valuer
of mines and quarries shall have the following qualifications, namely :
(i) he
must be a graduate in mining of a recognised
university, or must possess a qualification recognised
as sufficient qualification for the purposes of recruitment to superior posts
and services under the Government of India; or
(ii) he
must be a person formerly employed
(a) in
a post under Government as a gazetted officer, or
(b) in
a post under any other employer carrying a remuneration of not less than Rs.
1,000 per month,
and, in either case, must have retired
or resigned from such employment after having rendered service as a mining
engineer for not less than five years.
6. A valuer
of stocks, shares, debentures, securities, shares in partnership firms and of
business assets including goodwill, but excluding those referred to in
sub-sections (1) to (5) and (7) to (10) shall have the following
qualifications, namely :
(i) he
must be a member of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or the
Institute of Cost & Works Accountants of India or the Institute of Company
Secretaries of India; and
(ii)
(A) he must have been in practice as
a Chartered Accountant or a Cost and Works Accountant for a period of not less
than five years, or
(B) he
must be a person formerly employed
(a) in
a post under Government as a gazetted officer, or
(b) in
a post under any other employer carrying a remuneration of not less than Rs.
1,000 per month, or
(c) as
a Company Secretary or an Assistant Company Secretary in a post carrying a
remuneration of not less than Rs. 1,000 per month and must have retired or
resigned from such employment after having rendered service for a period of not
less than five years,
and, in either case, must have retired
or resigned from such employment after having rendered service for a period of
not less than five years in the field of audit and accounts or taxation works.
7. A valuer
of machinery and plant shall have the following qualifications, namely :
(i) he
must either be a graduate in mechanical engineering or electrical engineering
of a recognised university, or possess a
qualification which is recognised as sufficient
qualification for the purposes of recruitment to superior posts and services
under the Central Government; or
(ii)
(A) he must be a person formerly
employed
(a) in
a post under Government as a gazetted officer, or
(b) in
a post under any other employer carrying a remuneration of not less than Rs.
1,000 per month,
and, in either case, must have retired
or resigned from such employment after having rendered service as a mechanical
or electrical engineer for a period of not less than five years, or
(c) as
a professor, reader or lecturer in a university, college or institution
preparing students for a degree in mechanical or electrical engineering or for
an equivalent qualification referred to in clause (i), and must have
retired or resigned from such employment after having taught for a period of
not less than five years, or
(B) he
must have been in practice as a consulting engineer for a period of not less
than five years and must have, in the opinion of the Central Government, acquired
sufficient experience in the valuation of machinery and plant.
8. A valuer
of jewellery must have been, for a period of not less than five years, a sole
proprietor or partner in a partnership firm carrying on jewellery business
which has a turnover of not less than Rs. 1 lakh or profits of not less than
Rs. 15,000 in two out of the three accounting years immediately preceding the
year in which the application for appointment as an approved valuer is made by him.
9. A valuer
of works of arts shall have the following qualifications, namely :
(i) he
must have specialised by virtue of his academic and
professional pursuits in the particular line of art, for the works of which he
seeks to be registered as a valuer; and
(ii) he
must have served in any one or more of the following capacities, namely,
(a) Director
General or Superintending Archaeologist of the Archaeological Survey of
(b) Director
of National Museum, New Delhi, Salar Jung Museum,
Hyderabad, Prince of Wales Museum, Bombay, Indian Museum, Calcutta, Asutosh Museum, Calcutta, Madras Museum, Madras, or Bharat Kala Bhavan,
Varanasi;
(c) Principal
of a
(d) Member
of the Art Purchase Committee of any of the Museums referred to in sub-clause (b),
or of the Lalit Kala Akademi.
10. A valuer
of life interest reversions and interest in expectancy shall have the following
qualifications, namely :
(i) he
must be a graduate of recognised university; and
(ii)
(A) he must have been in practice
as an actuary under the Insurance Act, 1938 (4 of 1938) for a period of not
less than five years; or
(B) he
must have rendered continuous service for a period of not less than five years
as an actuary under Government or in the Life Insurance Corporation of India
established under the Life Insurance Act, 1956 (31 of 1956);
(C) he
must have practised as an actuary or served as such
under Government or in the Life Insurance Corporation of
ANNEX
II - FORM OF APPLICATION
Application for
appointment as a valuer under section 4(3)
of the Estate Duty Act, 1953
To
The Secretary,
Central Board of
Direct Taxes,
Sir,
I hereby apply for
appointment as a valuer of .........................................................................
(class of assets)
under section 4(3) of the Estate Duty Act, 1953. The following particulars are
furnished herewith :
1. Name in full (Block letter)
2. Fathers/Husbands name
3. Permanent address
4. Present address :
(i) Office
(ii) Residence
5. Income-tax Permanent Account Number
6. Date of birth
7. Educational
qualifications, including professional or technical qualifications (Enclose attested
copy of degree or diploma certificate)
8. If member of any professional or technical
institution, give particulars
9. (a) Present
occupation and since when
(b) If a partner of a firm, name, address and business/profession of the
firm (Date of joining the partnership to be indicated)
10. If already engaged in the profession or
calling of a valuer, whether
(a) on your own behalf (since
when)
(b) in partnership with
others (give names and addresses of other partners) (Date of joining the
partnership to be indicated)
11.
Date of commencement of practice as a valuer
12. (a) Give
full details of your experience which qualifies you for appointment as valuer (Documentary evidence to be given)
(b) A list of assets valued or works executed during the last three
years should be enclosed
13.
Whether you have been appointed as valuer under
section 34AB of the Wealth-tax Act, 1957? If so, give registration No. with
File No. and date
14.
Name, occupation and address of three persons (not being relatives or business
partners) with whom you have had regular contact over the last five years (one
of whom should preferably be a valuer) and of whom
you authorise the Board to enquire regarding your
reputation and character
15. (a) State
if any liability towards income-tax, wealth-tax or gift-tax outstanding against
you
(b)
If so, whether satisfactory arrangements
for payment thereof have been made
(c) Attach
Income-tax Clearance Certificate from the ITO concerned
16.
Whether you have been convicted of any offence and sentenced to a term of
imprisonment? If so, give details of offence and sentence
17.
Whether you have been found guilty of misconduct in your professional capacity?
If so, give details
I hereby declare
that I am not disqualified from applying for appointment by reason of any of
the provisions contained in clauses (a) to (d) of paragraph (4)
of Notification No. 300/355/74-ED, dated 1-8-1975.
I further declare
that I shall
(a) make an impartial and true valuation
of any asset which I may be required to value;
(b) furnish the report of such valuation
in the prescribed form;
(c) charge fees at a rate not exceeding
the rate or rates prescribed by the Board in this behalf; and
(d) not undertake any valuation of any
asset in which I have a direct or indirect interest.
.................................................
Signature of
Applicant
Verification
I,
.....................................................................................,
do declare
[name in block letters]
(i) that
what is stated in the above application is true and correct to the best of my
knowledge and belief, and
(ii) that the copies sent herewith are
the true copies.
....................................................
Place ............................
Signature
of Applicant
Date ............................
LIST OF
ENCLOSURES
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
etc.
Circular : No.
443
1537.
Additional relief to property bequeathed to educational institutions and hospitals
- Notification issued under sub-section (2) granting full exemption from estate
duty
Whereas
the Central Government is of opinion that circumstances are such that relief
should be given, in addition to the reliefs provided
in sub-section (1) of section 33 of the Estate Duty Act, 1953 (34 of 1953), in
respect of the following class of property, namely, any property in respect of
which a bequest has been made in favour of a University or other educational
institution referred to in clause (22) or to a hospital or other
institution referred to in clause (22A) of section 10 of the Income-tax
Act, 1961 (43 of 1961), and in respect of which estate duty has been levied and
collected or is liable to be levied and collected under the said Estate Duty
Act by virtue of the inclusion of that property in the estate of the testator
concerned as property passing under the Act aforesaid on the death of such
testator ;
Now,
therefore, in exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (2) of section 33
of the Estate Duty Act, 1953, the Central Government hereby directs that no
estate duty shall be payable in respect of the property, whether movable or
immovable, so bequeathed to the extent the principal value thereof does not
exceed rupees ten lakhs, if, on the death of the testator, whether before or
after the date of issue of this notification, possession of the bequeathed
property is delivered to the legatee within a period of three years from the
date
(i) of
such death, or
(ii) on
which probate or letters of administration with a copy of the Will annexed is
granted in respect of the state of the deceased testator, whichever is later.
Notification
: No.
GSR 513, dated 29-4-1980.
Circular : No.
444 [F. No. 215/41/85-IT(A-II), dated 13-12-1985.
1332. Central Government Special
Deposit Scheme extended - Reinvestment by recognised
funds - Part A of Fourth Schedule read with rule 67(2)(ii) of Income-tax Rules
Attention is
invited to rule 67(2)(iv) [as stood before its substitution by the Third
Amendment Rules, 1986 with effect from 1-4-1986] of the Income-tax Rules, 1962
which, inter alia, provided that the recognised provident, superannuation and gratuity funds can
make investment in the Central Government Special Deposit Scheme up to an
amount not exceeding 30 per cent of the investible
moneys. Special Deposit Scheme which was in force till 30-6-1985 has been
extended for a further period of 10 years vide Notification No. 16(8)-PD
of 1984 dated 12-6-1985. It has, therefore, been decided that maturing
deposits falling due for repayment from 1-7-1985 onwards may be
reinvested by the funds in the Central Government Special Deposit Scheme.
However, the existing limit of 30 per cent remains unchanged.
Circular : No. 446 [F.
No. 225/105/83-IT (A-II)], dated 31-12-1985.
1239. Instructions to subordinate authorities - Authorisation regarding condonation
of delay in filing refund claim
Clarification 1
1. I am directed to enclose a copy of the order under section 119(2)(b)
from file of even number dated 12-10-1993 (See Annex) and also the
Circular Number 670 of even date (Clarification 2) from the same file.
2. In this context, I have been directed to draw your attention to
Instruction No. 1867, dated 30-11-1990 (See Annex) and to inform you
that paras 2, 3 and 4 of the said Instruction shall
continue to be applicable. The Chief Commissioner/Director General/
Commissioner of Income-tax/ Director of Income-tax should not only see that the
conditions laid down by the various Circulars of the board are satisfied, but
should also look further into the facts of the case and examine other aspects
such as the source of income. Whether the income returned is reasonable
considering the extent of profits disclosed, whether books of account had been
maintained and whether there was any manipulation of accounts in the course of
the delayed filing of the claim of refund, etc., for deciding the genuineness
of the claims.
3. The powers delegated under section 119(2)(b) should be invoked
only in suitable cases after scrutiny as suggested above and the claim should
not be disposed of in a routine manner.
Order : [F.
No. 225/208/93-IT (A-II)], dated 26-10-1993.
Annexure
1. In continuation of earlier orders dated 5-2-1988 and 17-8-1988 issued
from F. No. 225/201/87-IT (A-II), the Central Board of Direct Taxes, in
exercise of the powers conferred by clause (b) of sub-section (2) of
section 119 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, hereby order that, in all cases where
an otherwise valid refund claim under section 237 of the Income-tax Act, 1961,
is filed by an assessee after the expiry of the statutory time limit prescribed
under section 239 of the Act, the Assessing Officer, having jurisdiction over
the case, may admit the said refund claim and dispose of the same on merits and
in accordance with law provided the following conditions are satisfied :
(i) the
Refund arises as a result of excess tax deducted at source, collected at source
and payments of advance tax under the provisions of Chapter XVII-B, XVII-BB and
XVII-C respectively and the amount of refund does not exceed Rs. 1 lakh for any
assessment year;
(ii) the
returned income is not a loss where the assessee claims the benefit of carry
forward of the loss;
(iii) the
refund claimed is not supplementary in nature, i.e., claim for
additional amount of refund after the completion of the original assessment for
the same assessment year; and
(iv) the
income of the assessee is not assessable in the hands of any other person under
any of the provisions of the Act.
Instruction : No. 1867, dated 30-11-1993.
1. Reference is invited to the earlier instructions/circulars issued by
the Board (copies enclosed) regarding condonation of
delays in claiming refunds, etc., by invoking the provisions of section 119(2)(b)
of the Income-tax Act, specifically the following :
(i) Instruction
No. 1795 dated 17th August, 1988 and letter No. 225/263/88-IT (A-II), dated
23rd January, 1989 stating that the Assessing Officer shall, before
entertaining a belated refund claim, obtain the prior approval of the
Commissioner of Income-tax where the refund claim does not exceed Rs. 1,000 and
of the Chief Commissioner of Income-tax/Director General of Income-tax where
the refund exceeds Rs. 1,000 but does not exceed Rs. 10,000; and
(ii) Order
No. 225/201/87-IT(A-II), dated 5-12-1988 clarifying that the Board has
delegated the power to condone the delay in case the refund does not exceed Rs.
10,000, provided the Chief Commissioner of Income-tax/Director General of
Income-tax or the Commissioner of Income-tax, as the case may be, as the case
may be, is satisfied that the conditions laid down in the various
instructions/circulars on the subject are satisfied. However, such delegation
was restricted to condonation of delay and not
rejection thereof.
2. Some Chief Commissioners have recommended the cases of contractors and
other persons engaged in business, who had make applications under section
119(2)(b) of the Income-tax Act for the purpose of claiming refunds of
income-tax deducted at source from contract receipts, etc., for reception as
they were not satisfied that the income returned by the said persons was full
and true or even reasonable considering the extent of profit disclosed. It was
also noticed that such persons were not maintaining any books of account and,
therefore, the possibility of purposely delaying the filing of the returns so
as to avoid scrutiny by the Department could not be ruled out. Needless to say
that such cases were not found to be of genuine hardship.
3. The Board has been accepting such recommendations as it would be
against public policy to condone such delays thereby giving an extended time to
such assessees to manipulate their accounts so as to
evade taxes.
4. The Board now desire that the Chief Commissioners/Directors
General/Commissioners should not only see that the conditions laid down by the
various Board circulars are satisfied, but also look further into the facts of
the case and examine the source of income, whether the income has been
reflected in other years or not, whether there is any scope for manipulation of
accounts due to the delay in filing the claim of refund, etc., before applying
the provisions of section 119(2)(b) of the Income-tax Act. It is desired
that only genuine cases should be considered for the purpose of applying the
provisions of section 119(2)(b) of the Act and the applications should
not be disposed of in a routine manner.
Clarification 2
1. The Boards order under section 119(2)(b), dated 12th October,
1993 and Circular No. 670 dated 26th October, 1993 [F. No. 225/208/93/IT
(A-II)] lay down procedure for condonation of delay
in belated claims of refunds. These provide that CIT has power to condone delay
in case of genuine hardship of refund claims up to Rs. 10,000 and CIT up to Rs.
1,00,000. The power of condonation in cases of refund
claims of more than Rs. 1,00,000 as well as power of rejection in all cases lie
with the Board.
2. Under the existing circular, apart from the conditions prescribed
under earlier orders dated 5-2-1988 and 17-8-1988 issued from [F. No.
225/201/87/IT (A-II)], the following additional conditions are required to be
fulfilled before the condonation of delay in filing
belated refund claims can be considered :
(i) the
refund arises as a result of excess tax deducted at source, collected at source
and payments of advance tax under the provisions of Chapters XVII-B, XVII-BB
and XVII-C, respectively and the amount of refund does not exceed Rs. 1 lakh
for any assessment year;
(ii) the
returned income is not a loss where the assessee claims the benefit of carry
forward of the loss;
(iii) the
refund claimed is not supplementary in nature, i.e., claim for
additional amount of refund is made after the completion of the original
assessment for the same assessment year; and
(iv) the
income of the assessee is not assessable in the hands of any other person under
any of the provisions of the Act.
3. Subsequently the Karnataka High Court in the case of Associated
Electro Ceramics v. Chairman, Central Board of Direct Taxes [1993]
201 ITR 501 held that the Board have power to condone the delay in cases having
claim of carry forward of losses. The department did not file special leave
petition against this order. Subsequently the matter was taken up with the
Ministry of Law who also agreed with the view that the Board have power to
condone the delay in filing the return under section 119(2)(b) of the
Income-tax Act, 1961, in a case having claim of carry forward of losses.
4. Hence, conditions at Serial No. (ii) of order under section
119(2)(b) dated 12th October, 1993 stipulating that the delay cannot be condoned
in cases where returned income is a loss and assessee claims benefit of carry
forward of the loss, is not legally tenable.
5. In view of the Board, hereby, clarify that delay in making refund
claim as well as claim of carry forward of losses, both, can be condoned in
cases where returned income is a loss, provided other conditions are satisfied.
The monetary limits prescribed for condonation of
delay in making refund claims, by different IT authorities, will apply to condonation of delay in cases of claim of carry forward of
losses as well.
Circular : No.
8/2001, dated 16-5-2001.
Clarification 3
1. I am directed to forward herewith the order contained in F. No.
225/208/93/ITA-II, dated 12th October, 1993, passed by the CBDT in exercise of
the powers conferred on it under section 119(2)(b) of the Income-tax
Act. By virtue of this order the Assessing Officers can admit belated refund
claims under section 237 of the Income-tax Act in cases where refunds may arise
as a result of tax deducted/collected at source and advance tax payments where
the amount of such refund does not exceed Rs. 1 lakh for any assessment year.
2. Board have also decided that in such cases
(i) where
the refund does not exceed Rs. 10,000 for any assessment year the Assessing
Officer shall obtain the prior approval of the CIT before entertaining a
belated refund claim ; and
(ii) where
the refund exceeds Rs. 10,000 but does not exceed Rs. 1,00,000 for any
assessment year the Assessing Officer shall obtain the prior approval of CCIT
of DGIT before entertaining a belated refund claim.
3. The CCIT/DGIT/CIT, as the case may be, shall ensure that the
conditions laid down under Boards order under section 119(2)(b) referred
to above are fulfilled.
4. Where a Chief Commissioner of Income-tax/Director General of
Income-tax/Commissioner of Income-tax/Director of Income-tax finds that the
four conditions laid down in the order under section 119(2)(b) dated
12-10-1993 are satisfied but still it is not a case of genuine hardship, he
should refer the belated refund application to the Board for final decision.
5. This order is effective from 1-11-1993 and will apply to all claims of
refund pending as on that date and also in respect of all refund claims filed
on or after that date.
Circular :
No. 670, dated 26-10-1993.
Clarification 4
1. Attention is invited to Boards order under section 119(2)(b) of
the Income-tax Act [F.No. 225/201/87-IT(A-II), dated
17-8-1988 whereby the Board, in exercise of the powers conferred by clause (b)
of sub-section (2) of section 119 of the Income-tax Act, 1961, have authorised
the Income-tax Officer to admit belated refund claims under section 237 of the
Income-tax Act, 1961 arising as a result of excess advance tax paid.
2. With a view to avoid genuine hardship to the taxpayers, Assessing
Officers have now been authorised to admit belated refund claims in respect of
amounts up to Rs. 10,000 provided the conditions laid down in the said order
are fulfilled. These conditions are as follows :
(i) the
refund arising as a result of excess advance tax payment in respect of
assessment year under the provisions of section 208 of the Income-tax Act, does
not exceed Rs. 10,000;
(ii) the
returned income is not a loss, where the assessee claims the benefit of carry forward
of the loss;
(iii) the
refund claimed is not supplementary in nature i.e., a claim for
additional amount of refund after the completion of the original assessment for
the same assessment year; and
(iv) the
income of the assessee is not assessable in the hands of any other person under
any provisions of the Act.
3. This order will be effective from 1-8-1988.
Circular : No.
521, dated 17-8-1988.
Clarification 5
1. Attention is invited to the Boards Order under section 119(2)(b)
[F. No. 225/201/87-IT(A-II)], dated 5-2-1988 whereby the Board, in exercise of
the powers conferred by clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 119,
have raised the monetary limit of cases in which the ITO is authorised to admit
belated refund claims under section 237.
2. With a view to avoid hardship to the taxpayers, the Income-tax
Officers have now been authorised to admit belated refund claims in respect of
amounts up to Rs. 10,000 provided the conditions laid down in the said order
are fulfilled. These conditions are as follows :
(i) the
refund arising as a result of tax deducted at source in respect of assessment
year under the provisions of sections 192, 193, 194, 194A, 194B, 194C, 194D and
195 does not exceed Rs. 10,000;
(ii) the
returned income is not a loss where the assessee claims the benefit of carry
forward of the loss;
(iii) the
refund claimed is not supplementary in nature, i.e., a claim for
additional amount of refund after the completion of the original assessment for
the same assessment year; and
(iv) the
income of assessee is not assessable in the hands of any other person under any
provisions of the Act.
3. This order will be effective from 10-2-1988.
Circular : No.
503 [F. No. 203/201/87-IT (A-II)], dated 6-2-1988.
Judicial
analysis
Explained in - The above circular was relied on in Balram Kapoor v.
ITO [1990] 38 TTJ (Nag.) 295, with the following observations :
In the present case, the refund arises on a proper
assessment of total income and proper application of the provisions of the Act
which require that the tax deducted at source should be adjusted against the
finally determined tax liability. This is precisely what the Board had in mind
when it issued the Circular dated 6th February, 1988. The conditions prescribed
by the Board contained in para 2 of the said circular
are as under :
** ** **
In the present case the refund arises as a result of
tax deducted at source under section 194C of the Act. Further the refund does not
exceed Rs. 10,000. Also the income returned is not a loss and the assessee is
not claiming the benefit of carry forward of the loss. We also find that the
refund claimed is not supplementary in nature, that is a claim for additional
amount of refund after the completion of the original assessment of the same
assessment year. Therefore, in our opinion, all the conditions prescribed in
this circular are satisfied in the assessees case and
although the circular is made effective from 10th February, 1988, we see no
reason why this circular should not be taken into consideration for deciding
the validity of the arguments advanced in the present case. (pp. 300-301).
Clarification
5
1. Attention is invited to Boards order under section 119(2)(b)
[F. No. 225/105/83-IT (A-II)], dated 24-3-1984 [Annex] wherein the
Board, in exercise of the powers conferred by clause (b) of sub-section
(2) of section 119, have condoned the delay in filing returns of income in
cases where an otherwise valid refund claim under section 237 is filed by the
assessee after the expiry of the statutory time limit under section 239 and the
Income-tax Officer, having jurisdiction over the case, has been empowered to
admit the said claim and dispose of the same merits and in accordance with law
provided the following conditions are satisfied :
(i) the
refund arising as a result of tax deducted at source in respect of the
assessment year under the provisions of sections 192, 193, 194, 194A, 194B,
194C, 194D and 195 does not exceed Rs. 1,000;
(ii) the
refund income is not a loss where the assessee claims the benefit of carry
forward of the loss;
(iii) the
refund claimed is not supplementary in nature, e.g., a claim for
additional amount of refund after the completion of the original assessment for
the same assessment year; and
(iv) the
income of the assessee if not assessable in the hands of any other person under
any provisions of the Act.
2. This order has been made effective from April 2, 1984.
3. You are requested to bring to the contents of the aforesaid order,
which has already been communicated to you vide the Boards endorsement
of even number dated 24-3-1984 to the notice of all the officers working under
you. It is also requested that this authorisation may
be given wide publicity.
Circular : No.
379 [F. No. 225/105/83-IT (A-II)], dated 10-4-1984.
Annex - Order,
Dated 24-3-1984 Referred to In Clarification
In exercise of the powers conferred by
clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 119 of the Income-tax Act,
1961, the Central Board of Direct Taxes hereby order that, in all cases an
otherwise valid refund claim under section 237 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 is
filed by an assessee after the expiry of the statutory time limit as prescribed
under section 239 of the Act, the Income-tax Officer, having jurisdiction over
the case, may admit the said refund claim and dispose of the same on merits and
in accordance with law provided the following conditions are satisfied :
(i) the
refund arising as a result of tax deducted at source in respect of the
assessment year under the provisions of sections 192, 193, 194, 194A, 194B,
194D and 195 does not exceed Rs. 1,000;
(ii) the
returned income is not a loss where the assessee claims the benefit of carry
forward of the loss;
(iii) the
refund claimed is not supplementary in nature, i.e., a claim for
additional amount of refund after the completion of the original assessment for
the same assessment year; and
(iv) the
income of the assessee is not assessable in the hands of any other person under
any provisions of the Act.
2. This order will be effective from April 2, 1984
1. Attention is invited to Boards Order F. No. 225/105/83-IT (A-II),
dated 24-3-1984 whereby the Board, in exercise of the powers conferred by
clause (b) of sub-section (2) of section 119 authorised the Income-tax
Officers to admit belated refund claims under section 237 in respect of amount
up to Rs. 1,000 in cases where refund arose as a result of tax deducted at
source under sections 192 to 194, section 194A, and section 195 provided the
conditions laid down in the said order were fulfilled. This order was effective
from 2-4-1984. The order, however, did not cover cases where refunds arose as a
result of tax deducted at source under section 194C, i.e., the cases of
contractors and sub-contractors.
2. With a view to avoiding hardship to the taxpayers, the Board vide
their Order F. No. 225/105/83-IT (A-II), dated 31-12-1985 have further authorised
the ITOs to admit a belated application/claim for
refund in cases where refund arises as a result of tax deducted at source under
section 194C provided the following conditions are satisfied :
(i) the
amount of refund arising as a result of tax deducted at source under the
provisions of section 194C, in respect of the assessment year, does not
exceed Rs. 1,000;
(ii) the
returned income is not a loss where the assessee claims benefit of carry
forward and set off of loss;
(iii) the
refund claim is not supplementary in nature, e.g., a claim for
additional amount of refund after the completion of the original assessment for
the same assessment year; and
(iv) the
income of the assessee is not assessable in the hands of any other person
under any provisions of the Act.
3. This order will be effective from 1-1-1986.